The nurse has just received a change-of-shift report on the following four clients. Which client should the nurse see first?
a) A 30-year-old client with a subarachnoid hemorrhage 4 days ago who has nimodipine (Nimotop) scheduled.
b) A 60-year-old client with right-sided weakness who received an infusion of tPA 8 hours ago.
c) A 50-year-old client who has chronic atrial fibrillation and a dose of warfarin (Coumadin) due.
d) A 40-year-old client who experienced a transient ischemic attack yesterday who has a dose of aspirin due.
The correct answer is: b) A 60-year-old client with right-sided weakness who received an infusion of tPA 8 hours ago.
Choice A reason: While the client with a subarachnoid hemorrhage needs close monitoring, the administration of nimodipine is essential but not immediately life-threatening compared to the post-tPA monitoring requirements.
Choice B reason: This client received tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) 8 hours ago, which is critical for treating ischemic stroke. They are at a high risk of complications such as bleeding and must be monitored closely for any signs of adverse effects, making them the priority.
Choice C reason: The client with chronic atrial fibrillation due for warfarin can be attended to after addressing more urgent needs. Chronic atrial fibrillation management is important, but it is less urgent than post-tPA care.
Choice D reason: The client who experienced a transient ischemic attack and is due for aspirin is stable compared to the client who recently received tP
A 30-year-old client with a subarachnoid hemorrhage 4 days ago who has nimodipine (Nimotop) scheduled.
A 60-year-old client with right-sided weakness who received an infusion of tPA 8 hours ago.
A 50-year-old client who has chronic atrial fibrillation and a dose of warfarin (Coumadin) due.
A 40-year-old client who experienced a transient ischemic attack yesterday who has a dose of aspirin due.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: While the client with a subarachnoid hemorrhage needs close monitoring, the administration of nimodipine is essential but not immediately life-threatening compared to the post-tPA monitoring requirements.
Choice B reason: This client received tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) 8 hours ago, which is critical for treating ischemic stroke. They are at a high risk of complications such as bleeding and must be monitored closely for any signs of adverse effects, making them the priority.
Choice C reason: The client with chronic atrial fibrillation due for warfarin can be attended to after addressing more urgent needs. Chronic atrial fibrillation management is important, but it is less urgent than post-tPA care.
Choice D reason: The client who experienced a transient ischemic attack and is due for aspirin is stable compared to the client who recently received tPA. While aspirin is important for preventing further strokes, it does not require the same level of immediate monitoring as the post-tPA client.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: A hematocrit level of 33.4% is slightly below the normal range, which may indicate mild anemia. While this is important to monitor, it is not as urgent as a high white blood cell count, which could indicate an infection. Mild anemia can typically be managed perioperatively without significant risk.
Choice B reason: A white blood cell count of 15.5 x10/uL is significantly elevated and suggests an active infection or inflammatory process. Before proceeding with surgery, it is crucial to identify and treat any infections to prevent postoperative complications, such as sepsis. This value is the most critical to report to the healthcare provider to ensure the safety of the surgical procedure.
Choice C reason: A platelet count of 386,000 mm³ is within the normal range and does not indicate any immediate risk of bleeding or clotting disorders. Thus, this value does not necessitate urgent reporting before surgery.
Choice D reason: A hemoglobin level of 12.2 g/dL is at the lower end of the normal range, indicating borderline anemia. Although it is important to consider, it does not present as immediate a concern as a potential infection. The surgery can generally proceed with closer monitoring of the client's hemoglobin levels.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Fidelity refers to the principle of keeping promises and being faithful to one's commitments. It involves loyalty and maintaining trust in the nurse-client relationship. While fidelity is important, it is not the most relevant principle in the context of respecting a client's decision to discontinue treatment.
Choice B reason: Autonomy is the ethical principle that recognizes an individual's right to make their own decisions and choices regarding their healthcare. Respecting a client's autonomy means acknowledging their right to refuse or discontinue treatment, even if the healthcare team disagrees with their decision. In this case, continued treatment against the client's wishes would violate their autonomy.
Choice C reason: Justice refers to the principle of fairness and equality in the distribution of resources and care. It involves ensuring that all clients receive equitable treatment. While justice is a key ethical principle, it is not the primary issue when considering the client's wish to discontinue ventilator support.
Choice D reason: Veracity refers to the principle of truthfulness and honesty in communication with clients. It involves providing accurate and complete information to enable clients to make informed decisions. While veracity is essential, it does not directly address the issue of respecting the client's decision to discontinue treatment.
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