The nurse has taught a client about a needle biopsy procedure, of the thyroid gland, to diagnose thyroid cancer. Which of the following statements by the client would indicate the teaching was successful?

"I will be put to sleep during this procedure."

"The doctor will be able to remove the cancer through the needle."

"After the biopsy I will know for sure if I have cancer and what stage it is."

"The doctor will make a small incision and remove a piece of the tumor."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. A needle biopsy of the thyroid is typically done under local anesthesia, not general anesthesia. The client would be awake during the procedure, although they may be given a sedative to help them relax.
B. A needle biopsy is used to obtain a sample of tissue for testing, not to remove the cancer. The procedure helps diagnose the presence of cancer, but further treatment like surgery would be necessary to remove any cancer.
C. While a needle biopsy can confirm the presence of cancer, it does not provide information about the stage of cancer. Additional imaging and tests would be required to determine the stage.
D. Although the procedure typically involves inserting a needle through the skin (often without making a large incision), the biopsy involves removing a small sample of tissue for examination. This is the correct understanding of a needle biopsy.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Fosphenytoin (Cerebyx) is correct to question as an initial treatment in status epilepticus. While fosphenytoin is used to prevent further seizures once initial control is achieved, it does not act quickly enough to stop active seizures. Therefore, it is not the first-line medication during the acute phase and should be questioned if ordered as the initial intervention.
B. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine and is one of the first-line treatments for status epilepticus due to its rapid onset of action.
C. Phenobarbital can be used if benzodiazepines and phenytoin/fosphenytoin fail to control seizures, making it an appropriate option in refractory cases.
D. Diazepam is also a benzodiazepine effective for the acute management of status epilepticus, typically administered intravenously or rectally for rapid effect.

A. Vasodilation B. Inflammation C. Muscle tension D. Brain tumor

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. While vasodilation can contribute to some types of headaches, such as migraines, cranial arteritis (also known as temporal arteritis) is not primarily caused by vasodilation.
B. Cranial arteritis is an inflammatory condition affecting the lining of the arteries, particularly the temporal arteries. The inflammation causes the headache and can lead to serious complications like vision loss if not treated promptly with corticosteroids.
C. Muscle tension is the typical cause of tension-type headaches, not cranial arteritis.
D. A brain tumor may cause headaches, but it is not the mechanism behind cranial arteritis. Cranial arteritis is a vascular inflammatory disorder.

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The nurse has taught a client about a needle biopsy procedure, of the thyroid gland, to diagnose thyroid cancer. Which of the following statements by the client would indicate the teaching was successful?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is administering prescribed medication to a client experiencing status epilepticus. Which of the following medications should the nurse question?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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