The nurse implements a primary prevention program for sexually transmitted diseases in a nurse-managed health center. Which outcome Indicates that the program was effective?
New screening protocols were developed, validated, and implemented.
Clients who incurred disease complications promptly received rehabilitation.
Average client scores improved on specific risk factor knowledge tests.
More than half at risk clients were diagnosed early in the disease process
The Correct Answer is C
A) Incorrect - Developing new screening protocols is important, but it doesn't directly indicate that the program has prevented diseases. Screening protocols might catch diseases but don't prevent them.
B) Incorrect - Clients receiving rehabilitation indicates they already had disease complications, which is not a primary prevention outcome.
C) Correct- An improvement in average client scores on risk factor knowledge tests suggests that the primary prevention program has successfully educated clients about behaviors and practices that can help prevent sexually transmitted diseases. This improvement indicates that clients have a better understanding of the risks and protective measures, which is a key indicator of program effectiveness.
D) Incorrect - Diagnosing clients early in their disease process is related to early detection (secondary prevention), not primary prevention.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A,B,C,D,E
Explanation
A) This is because the client is experiencing an allergic reaction to piperacillin, which can be life-threatening. The nurse should stop the infusion immediately to prevent further exposure to the drug and assess vital signs to monitor for signs of anaphylaxis, such as hypotension, tachycardia, wheezes, or stridor.
B) Assessing vital signs is a priority to determine the severity of the reaction and the client's overall condition.
C) The nurse should contact the healthcare provider to report the situation and obtain orders for treatment, such as antihistamines, corticosteroids, or epinephrine.
D) The nurse should initiate an adverse event report to document the incident and follow the facility's protocol for reporting medication errors.
E) The nurse should also document the reaction to the drug in the client's chart and notify the pharmacy to avoid future administration of piperacillin or related antibiotics.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. A 12-year-old reporting neck, arm, and lower back discomfort:
- This child is reporting discomfort, which is concerning, but it doesn't indicate an immediate life-threatening condition. However, a thorough assessment is needed to rule out any serious injuries, especially to the spine.
B. An 8-year-old with a full leg air splint for a possible broken tibia:
- While a possible broken tibia requires attention, it is not as immediately critical as symptoms such as projectile vomiting. Splinting can help stabilize the limb, but it is not an emergency that requires immediate attention compared to potential neurological issues.
C. A 6-year-old with multiple superficial lacerations of all extremities:
- Superficial lacerations, although they require care, are generally not immediately life-threatening. The child needs appropriate wound care and assessment for any deeper injuries, but this can be addressed in a timely manner without immediate urgency.
D. An 11-year-old with a headache, nausea, and projectile vomiting:
- This is the most concerning presentation among the options. Headache, nausea, and projectile vomiting could be indicative of a severe head injury, and these neurological symptoms require urgent evaluation to assess for conditions such as a concussion, intracranial bleed, or increased intracranial pressure.
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