The nurse is administering IV fluconazole to a client who has systemic candidiasis. After reviewing the client's di’gnostic studies, the nurse identifies a rising trend in the liver enzyme levels for aspartate aminotransferase (AST). Which action should the nurse implement?

Hold the dose and notify the pharmacy to stop dispensing the next premixed doses.

Hold the dose and notify the healthcare provider of the changes in the laboratory studies.

Begin the infusion and monitor the client's bl’od urea nitrogen (BUN), serum creatinine, and liver function tests.

Begin the infusion and submit a drug reaction report to the nursing supervisor.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A) Hold the dose and notify the pharmacy to stop dispensing the next premixed doses: This action may prevent further administration of fluconazole, but it does not address the underlying concern of rising liver enzyme levels. Holding the dose and notifying the healthcare provider directly would be more appropriate.

B) Hold the dose and notify the healthcare provider of the changes in the laboratory studies: This is the correct response. RisIng liver enzyme levels, indIcated by an increasing trend in aspartate aminotransferase (AST), suggest potential liver dysfunction or damage, which can be a serious adverse effect of fluconazole. The nurse should hold the dose and promptly inform the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.

C) Begin the infusion and monitor the client's bl’od urea nitrogen (BUN), serum creatinine, and liver function tests: Initiating the infusion without addressing the rising liver enzyme levels could potentially worsen liver function. It is essential to hold the dose and inform the healthcare provider before proceeding with further administration.

D) Begin the infusion and submit a drug reaction report to the nursing supervisor: While it's im’ortant to document adverse reactions and submit reports as appropriate, the priority in this situation is to hold the dose and notify the healthcare provider to address the rising liver enzyme levels.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A) A total calcium level of 5.5 mg/dL (1.4 mmol/L) is critically low, as the normal reference range for total calcium is between 9 to 10.4 mg/dL (2.3 to 2.6 mmol/L). Hypocalcemia can lead to serious complications such as tetany, arrhythmias, and seizures. Before administering methylprednisolone, which can further decrease calcium levels and contribute to osteoporosis, it is essential to notify the healthcare provider to address the client's low calcium level. This may involve correcting the calcium deficiency before proceeding with the administration of the

B) If a healthcare provider orders a calcium supplement for the client, administering it would be appropriate to help correct the hypocalcemia before administering methylprednisolone. However, in the absence of a direct order, the nurse should first notify the healthcare provider to ensure that the client's calcium levels are addressed appropriately before proceeding with any medication that could exacerbate the issue. The priority is to manage the low calcium levels before administering corticosteroids like methylprednisolone.

C) Administering methylprednisolone with a glass of milk may help with calcium absorption; however, this does not directly address the critical issue of hypocalcemia. The nurse must first prioritize notifying the healthcare provider and correcting the calcium imbalance before proceeding with medication administration.

D) Tapering the dose of methylprednisolone is not immediately appropriate based on the low calcium level alone. Methylprednisolone is often tapered to avoid withdrawal symptoms, but the nurse's first priority is to address the client's hypocalcemia, which can have more immediate clinical consequences. The focus should be on stabilizing the calcium level first.

A. Remove the patch and consult with the healthcare provider about the client’s pain resolution. B. Place the patch on the client’s shoulder and leave both patches in place for 12 hours. C. Apply the new patch in a different location after removing the original patch. D. Administer an oral analgesic and evaluate its effectiveness before applying the new patch.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Remove the patch and consult with the healthcare provider about the client’s pain resolution: While it’s essential to assess the need for continued pain management, removing the patch without replacing it could lead to inadequate pain control, especially if the client still requires opioid analgesia. Additionally, fentanyl patches are typically left in place for their prescribed duration, and removing them prematurely could disrupt the pain management plan.

B) Place the patch on the client's sh’ulder and leave both patches in place for 12 hours: Applying a new patch without removing the previous one could result in a higher-than-intended dose of fentanyl, increasing the risk of opioid toxicity. Leaving both patches in place simultaneously is not recommended.

C) Apply the new patch in a different location after removing the original patch: This is the correct action. Applying the new patch in a different location helps prevent skin irritation and ensures consistent drug absorption. Rotating patch sites according to the manufacturer's in’tructions is important for optimal medication delivery.

D) Administer an oral analgesic and evaluate its effectiveness before applying the new patch: While oral analgesics may provide temporary relief, they may not be as effective as transdermal fentanyl for managing chronic pain, especially if the client has been on a stable regimen of fentanyl patches. Additionally, delaying the application of the new patch could lead to inadequate pain control.

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The nurse is administering IV fluconazole to a client who has systemic candidiasis. After reviewing the client's di’gnostic studies, the nurse identifies a rising trend in the liver enzyme levels for aspartate aminotransferase (AST). Which action should the nurse implement?

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The nurse is preparing to apply the client’s scheduled fentanyl transdermal patch. The nurse notes the previously applied patch is intact on the client’s upper back and the client reports no pain. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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The nurse is administering IV fluconazole to a client who has systemic candidiasis. After reviewing the client's di’gnostic studies, the nurse identifies a rising trend in the liver enzyme levels for aspartate aminotransferase (AST). Which action should the nurse implement?