A client who is receiving pregabalin for fibromyalgia reports experiencing tremors in the hands. Which action should the nurse implement?

Collect a capillary glucose level.

Notify the healthcare provider.

Obtain orthostatic blood pressure readings.

Administer a PRN dose of an antianxiety drug.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A) Collecting a capillary glucose level is not indicated in response to hand tremors reported by a client taking pregabalin for fibromyalgia. Hand tremors are not typically associated with hypoglycemia, which is what capillary glucose levels assess. Therefore, this action does not directly address the reported symptom.

B) Notifying the healthcare provider is the most appropriate action in response to the client’s report of experiencing tremors while taking pregabalin. Hand tremors can be a potential adverse effect of pregabalin, and the healthcare provider should be informed to assess the severity of the symptom, consider alternative medications or dosage adjustments, and determine the need for further evaluation or intervention.

C) Obtaining orthostatic blood pressure readings is not indicated in response to hand tremors reported by a client taking pregabalin for fibromyalgia. Orthostatic blood pressure readings assess for changes in blood pressure upon position changes (e.g., from lying down to standing up) and are not directly relevant to the reported symptom of tremors.

D) Administering a PRN dose of an antianxiety drug is not the first-line intervention for hand tremors reported by a client taking pregabalin. While antianxiety medications may help alleviate symptoms of anxiety, they do not address the underlying cause of the tremors. Additionally, the client’s tremors may not necessarily be related to anxiety. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize notifying the healthcare provider for further assessment and management of the reported symptom.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Remove the patch and consult with the healthcare provider about the client’s pain resolution: While it’s essential to assess the need for continued pain management, removing the patch without replacing it could lead to inadequate pain control, especially if the client still requires opioid analgesia. Additionally, fentanyl patches are typically left in place for their prescribed duration, and removing them prematurely could disrupt the pain management plan.

B) Place the patch on the client's sh’ulder and leave both patches in place for 12 hours: Applying a new patch without removing the previous one could result in a higher-than-intended dose of fentanyl, increasing the risk of opioid toxicity. Leaving both patches in place simultaneously is not recommended.

C) Apply the new patch in a different location after removing the original patch: This is the correct action. Applying the new patch in a different location helps prevent skin irritation and ensures consistent drug absorption. Rotating patch sites according to the manufacturer's in’tructions is important for optimal medication delivery.

D) Administer an oral analgesic and evaluate its effectiveness before applying the new patch: While oral analgesics may provide temporary relief, they may not be as effective as transdermal fentanyl for managing chronic pain, especially if the client has been on a stable regimen of fentanyl patches. Additionally, delaying the application of the new patch could lead to inadequate pain control.

A. Serum creatinine 1.0 mg/dL (88.4 μmol/L) B. Platelet count of 100,000/mm3 (100 x 10°/L). C. Hematocrit 459% (0.45 volume fraction). D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 20 mg/dL (7.1 mmol/L)

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) A serum creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL falls within the reference range (0.5 to 1.1 mg/dL) and does not indicate immediate action by the nurse. Creatinine levels within the reference range suggest normal kidney function.

B) A platelet count of 100,000/mm3 (100 x 10^9/L) is below the lower limit of the reference range (150,000 to 400,000/mm3). Thrombocytopenia, or low platelet count, increases the risk of bleeding complications, especially when administering anticoagulants like enoxaparin. Therefore, a platelet count of 100,000/mm3 requires immediate action by the nurse to assess for bleeding and notify the healthcare provider.

C) A hematocrit of 45% (0.45 volume fraction) falls within the reference range (42% to 52%) and does not indicate immediate action by the nurse.

D) A blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level of 20 mg/dL (7.1 mmol/L) falls within the reference range (10 to 20 mg/dl) and does not indicate immediate action by the nurse.

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A client who is receiving pregabalin for fibromyalgia reports experiencing tremors in the hands. Which action should the nurse implement?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is preparing to apply the client’s scheduled fentanyl transdermal patch. The nurse notes the previously applied patch is intact on the client’s upper back and the client reports no pain. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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