The nurse is administering medications to the patient who is in renal failure resulting from end-stage renal disease.
The nurse is aware that patients with kidney failure would most likely have problems with which pharmacokinetic phase?
Metabolism.
Excretion.
Absorption.
Distribution.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Metabolism is primarily carried out by the liver, involving enzymatic biotransformation of drugs into more hydrophilic metabolites for excretion. While liver function can be impacted by systemic illness, renal failure's direct effect on drug metabolism is less significant than its impact on elimination. The liver's cytochrome P450 system typically remains functional.
Choice B rationale
Excretion is the primary elimination pathway for many drugs and their metabolites, mainly via the kidneys. In end-stage renal disease, glomerular filtration rate and tubular secretion are severely impaired, leading to accumulation of drugs and their toxic metabolites, necessitating dose adjustments or alternative elimination methods. Normal creatinine clearance is 80-120 mL/min.
Choice C rationale
Absorption refers to the movement of a drug from its administration site into the bloodstream. While renal failure can indirectly affect absorption through gastrointestinal changes (e.g., uremia-induced nausea), it is not the primary pharmacokinetic phase directly compromised by impaired kidney function. Bioavailability might be altered but not the fundamental absorption process.
Choice D rationale
Distribution involves the reversible movement of a drug from the systemic circulation into the interstitial and intracellular fluids. Renal failure can impact drug distribution due to fluid imbalances, altered protein binding (e.g., hypoalbuminemia), and changes in tissue perfusion, but it is not the most significant or direct pharmacokinetic impairment compared to excretion.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["100"]
Explanation
Step 1 is calculate the flow rate in mL/hr. 100 mL ÷ 60 minutes = 1.666 mL/minute. 1.666 mL/minute × 60 minutes/hr = 99.96 mL/hr. Rounded to whole number: 100 mL/hr.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Administering nitroglycerin on an as-needed basis for sudden, crushing chest pain is inappropriate because the immediate nature of the pain requires rapid intervention. Myocardial ischemia, often causing such pain, necessitates swift vasodilation to improve coronary blood flow and oxygen supply, preventing irreversible cardiac muscle damage. Delay can exacerbate ischemia.
Choice B rationale
Administering nitroglycerin on a prescribed schedule is typically reserved for prophylactic use in conditions like stable angina to prevent episodes, not for acute, sudden onset chest pain. This type of pain indicates an acute event, potentially myocardial infarction, demanding immediate action to mitigate cardiac damage through rapid vasodilation.
Choice C rationale
Administering medication at the earliest convenience is not appropriate for a STAT order in a patient experiencing sudden, crushing chest pain. "STAT" signifies an urgent need for the medication, indicating a life-threatening or rapidly evolving condition requiring immediate pharmacological intervention to avert significant physiological compromise.
Choice D rationale
Administering nitroglycerin immediately is crucial for sudden, crushing chest pain as it suggests acute myocardial ischemia or infarction. Nitroglycerin causes vasodilation, reducing preload and afterload, which decreases myocardial oxygen demand and improves coronary blood flow, thereby limiting cardiac damage and alleviating symptoms rapidly.
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