The nurse is assessing a Client who presented with fatigue, weakness, and a low hemoglobin level. Which of the following Signs and symptoms would lead the nurse to Suspect hemolytic anemia?
History of menorrhagia
Yellowing of the skin and eyes
Long-term use of omeprazole
History of frequent hospital visits for vaso-occlusive crises
The Correct Answer is B
A. Menorrhagia (heavy menstrual bleeding) is more indicative of iron deficiency anemia.
B. Hemolytic anemia involves increased red blood cell destruction, leading to the release of bilirubin and causing jaundice (yellowing of the skin and eyes).
C. Long-term omeprazole use is associated with vitamin B12 deficiency anemia, not hemolytic anemia.
D. Frequent hospital visits for vaso-occlusive crises are characteristic of sickle cell disease, which can cause hemolytic anemia but has a distinct pathophysiology.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. A positive ELISA test requires confirmation with a more specific test, such as a Western blot or indirect immunofluorescence assay (IFA), to rule out false positives.
B. A positive ELISA does not indicate the absence of HIV; further testing is needed for confirmation.
C. HIV testing does not involve direct visualization of infected cells under a microscope.
D. HIV can still be transmitted at any stage, even if symptoms are not present.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Neutrophil count is not a direct measure of ART effectiveness; a decrease may indicate bone marrow suppression or infection.
B. A decreased CD4+ T-cell count suggests disease progression, not effective treatment.
C. A decreased viral load indicates that ART is effectively suppressing HIV replication. This is the primary goal of treatment to prevent disease progression and maintain immune function.
D. A decreased white blood cell count can result from various factors and does not indicate ART effectiveness.
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