The nurse is assessing a client with a diagnosis of mitral valve stenosis. Which element of assessment data indicates that the disease is worsening?
Increase in systolic blood pressure 10 mmHg above client's norm
reports dyspnea after walking up 2 flights of stairs
Jugular vein distention and +3 peripheral edema
Complaints of epigastric pain after eating a large meal
The Correct Answer is C
A. Increase in systolic blood pressure 10 mmHg above client's norm: A mild increase in systolic blood pressure is not a specific indicator of mitral stenosis progression. Blood pressure fluctuations may occur due to various factors and are not typically used as a primary marker of worsening valve disease.
B. reports dyspnea after walking up 2 flights of stairs: Exertional dyspnea is a common early symptom of mitral stenosis due to reduced left atrial emptying and pulmonary congestion. However, this does not necessarily indicate worsening unless the symptom becomes more severe or occurs with minimal exertion.
C. Jugular vein distention and +3 peripheral edema: These are signs of right-sided heart failure, which may result from long-standing mitral stenosis leading to pulmonary hypertension and subsequent right ventricular hypertrophy and failure. This indicates disease progression and worsening cardiac function.
D. Complaints of epigastric pain after eating a large meal: Epigastric discomfort is not a typical symptom of mitral stenosis and is more likely related to gastrointestinal issues. It does not reflect the status or progression of the cardiac condition.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Apply transcutaneous pacemaker pads: While this is a potential intervention for symptomatic or severe bradycardia unresponsive to medications, it is premature as a first step in this scenario. The client is stable with a heart rate of 50 bpm and no mention of hemodynamic compromise.
B. Place the client in Trendelenburg position: This position is used to improve venous return in hypotensive patients, but there is no evidence of hypotension or poor perfusion. It is not an appropriate response to mild bradycardia in this context.
C. Call the doctor for an order to decrease the infusion rate: Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that slows AV node conduction, potentially causing bradycardia. Since the heart rate has dropped to 50 bpm, the most appropriate first action is to contact the provider to adjust the infusion rate, which may be too high for the client’s current rhythm.
D. Administer a dose of atropine: Atropine is used for symptomatic bradycardia. If the client is asymptomatic and the bradycardia is mild and medication-induced, adjusting or discontinuing the offending agent should be attempted before administering atropine.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Administer the dose later in the day when their nausea subsides: Delaying the dose does not address the underlying concern of potential digoxin toxicity. Symptoms like nausea and visual disturbances suggest toxicity and require immediate assessment rather than postponement.
B. Assess the client's apical rate: The first and most appropriate nursing action is to assess the apical heart rate for one full minute, as bradycardia is a key indicator of digoxin toxicity. If the rate is below 60 bpm, the dose should be held, and the provider should be notified.
C. Contact the physician for STAT serum potassium level: Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, but while checking potassium is important, it is not the first step. Assessment of heart rate is more immediately critical in evaluating the need to hold the medication.
D. Administer the client's prescribed dose intravenously: Administering the dose especially IV when the client has symptoms of toxicity could worsen the situation. Digoxin should be held, not given, until further evaluation and provider notification.
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