The nurse is caring for a client with suspected infectious endocarditis. Which information obtained in the health history could contribute to the development of this problem?
Breast cancer treated with chemotherapy and radiation
Periodontal disease and gum surgery three months ago
Type II diabetic for ten years
Myocardial infarction one year ago
The Correct Answer is B
A. Breast cancer treated with chemotherapy and radiation: While cancer and its treatments can suppress the immune system, they are not direct causes of infectious endocarditis. The condition is more closely related to bacteremia and structural heart damage.
B. Periodontal disease and gum surgery three months ago: Periodontal disease involves chronic bacterial infection of the gums and supporting structures of the teeth, this transient bacteremia can lead to infectious endocarditis. Oral infections and invasive dental procedures can introduce bacteria into the bloodstream, particularly streptococci, which can colonize damaged heart valves and cause infectious endocarditis.
C. Type II diabetic for ten years: Diabetes increases the risk of infection generally, but it is not a specific cause of endocarditis. Without a portal of entry or bacteremia, the condition alone is not strongly associated with endocarditis.
D. Myocardial infarction one year ago: A prior MI may result in reduced cardiac function but does not directly lead to infectious endocarditis unless it has resulted in damaged valves or introduced infection, which is not indicated here.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Increase the pacemaker sensitivity: Adjusting pacemaker sensitivity is a technical function typically managed by a cardiologist or device technician. There is no indication from the information provided that the pacemaker is under- or over-sensing, so no adjustment is warranted.
B. Document that the pacemaker is regular: While the pacemaker may be functioning regularly, this statement is vague and does not accurately describe the observed pacing activity. The key observation is the spike occurring before the P wave, which requires more specific documentation.
C. Set the pacemaker to the asynchronous mode: Asynchronous pacing means the pacemaker fires at a set rate regardless of the patient's intrinsic rhythm and is generally reserved for specific situations such as during surgery or when interference with sensing is suspected. There is no evidence of pacemaker malfunction or need to override sensing in this scenario.
D. Document that the atria are being paced: A pacemaker spike immediately before the P wave indicates atrial pacing. This means the pacemaker is stimulating the atria, leading to atrial depolarization. This is the appropriate interpretation and should be documented clearly.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Administer amiodarone 200 mg IV push: Amiodarone is used for shockable rhythms like ventricular fibrillation (VF) or pulseless ventricular tachycardia (VT) that are refractory to defibrillation. The rhythm on the monitor is asystole, which is non-shockable, and amiodarone is not indicated here.
B. Defibrillate the client using 200 joules: Defibrillation is only appropriate for shockable rhythms such as VF or pulseless VT. Asystole is not shockable, and defibrillation in this rhythm would be ineffective and inappropriate.
C. CPR until the physician stops the code: The rhythm strip shows asystole, a flatline with no electrical activity. The priority intervention is to initiate and continue high-quality cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) immediately and continue until the code is terminated by the physician. This is consistent with Advanced Cardiac Life Support (ACLS) guidelines.
D. Administer adenosine 12 mg IV push: Adenosine is used to terminate supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) and is not indicated in asystole or during cardiac arrest. It would have no effect in a rhythm with no electrical activity.
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