The nurse is assessing four clients at the neighborhood clinic.
Which of these clients should the nurse identify to be at risk for the development of pernicious anemia?
35-year-old male recently diagnosed with chronic renal failure.
26-year-old woman in her second trimester of pregnancy.
50-year-old male who is following a high-fat and high-protein diet.
43-year-old male who had gastric bypass surgery one year ago.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Chronic renal failure results in decreased erythropoietin production, leading to anemia due to poor red blood cell production, not the vitamin B12 deficiency seen in pernicious anemia. Pernicious anemia specifically results from the lack of intrinsic factor causing B12 deficiency.
Choice B rationale
Pregnancy may cause iron-deficiency anemia due to increased iron demands, not pernicious anemia. Pernicious anemia stems from intrinsic factor deficiency, unrelated to pregnancy physiology. Iron supplementation is required in pregnancy-induced anemia, not B12.
Choice C rationale
A high-fat, high-protein diet does not inherently affect vitamin B12 absorption. Pernicious anemia results from the deficiency of intrinsic factor or issues with B12 absorption, not dietary composition. This individual is not at increased risk based on diet alone.
Choice D rationale
Gastric bypass surgery can disrupt intrinsic factor secretion due to altered gastric mucosa. Intrinsic factor is essential for vitamin B12 absorption in the ileum, and its deficiency directly contributes to the development of pernicious anemia in post-gastric bypass patients. .
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A low sodium, high-calorie diet does not directly address severe pain caused by renal colic. Dietary interventions are long-term strategies for kidney health but are not immediate priorities for acute pain relief. Renal colic pain requires prompt management with pharmacological interventions to alleviate severe discomfort. Adjusting dietary intake may support prevention but would not resolve the acute symptoms, emphasizing that this is not the first-line measure for this clinical situation.
Choice B rationale
Increasing fluid intake to 3–4 L/day is beneficial for flushing out kidney stones and preventing further stone formation. However, this intervention does not directly alleviate severe pain experienced during an episode of renal colic. While adequate hydration is crucial for long-term management, acute pain demands immediate pharmacological relief. Therefore, fluid intake implementation is secondary when compared to pain management priorities.
Choice C rationale
Tamsulosin (Flomax) is an alpha-blocker that promotes the passage of kidney stones by relaxing the smooth muscles of the ureter. Although effective in expediting stone passage, it does not provide immediate pain relief for severe renal colic. Its role is valuable for the resolution of the obstruction but does not address acute symptoms. Administering pain medication remains a priority to manage distress caused by colic episodes.
Choice D rationale
Morphine sulfate is an opioid analgesic that directly targets severe pain associated with renal colic. It binds to mu-opioid receptors in the central nervous system, producing analgesia and a calming effect. Its rapid onset and effectiveness in severe pain management make it the first prescription to implement. Pain relief improves the client's comfort and allows for addressing underlying causes of colic after stabilizing acute distress.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Delaying follow-up without immediate intervention may result in the client's blood pressure remaining uncontrolled, increasing the risk of complications like cardiovascular events. Reevaluation in one month without assessing adherence neglects the urgent need for optimizing management.
Choice B rationale
Assessing adherence to both lifestyle modifications and medication therapy is crucial as noncompliance may explain the suboptimal blood pressure control. Ensuring adherence and addressing any barriers are necessary steps in evaluating the effectiveness of treatment.
Choice C rationale
Increasing medication dosage without first assessing the client's adherence to current prescriptions or lifestyle modifications may be premature. Nonadherence to therapy could render dosage adjustments ineffective, leading to unnecessary changes to the regimen.
Choice D rationale
Adding a calcium-channel blocker without assessing adherence disregards the importance of compliance. Treatment should be optimized based on existing therapy before considering additional pharmacological interventions. .
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