The nurse is assigned to care for a client who is 2 days postoperative after an above-the-knee amputation of the right leg. The nurse plans to implement which measure to prevent hip contractures?
Maintain the client in a supine position.
Maintain a high-Fowler’s position when the client is in bed.
Elevate the stump on a pillow.
Position the client on the abdomen for 20 to 30 minutes twice a day.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice D rationale
Positioning the client on the abdomen for 20 to 30 minutes twice a day helps prevent hip flexion contractures. This position stretches the hip flexor muscles, reducing the risk of contractures and promoting better range of motion.
Choice A rationale
Maintaining the client in a supine position does not effectively prevent hip flexion contractures. It is important to vary the client’s position to avoid stiffness and promote mobility.
Choice B rationale
Maintaining a high-Fowler’s position when the client is in bed can increase the risk of hip flexion contractures. This position keeps the hip flexed, which can lead to contractures over time.
Choice C rationale
Elevating the stump on a pillow can help reduce swelling but does not address the prevention of hip flexion contractures. The focus should be on positioning that stretches the hip flexors.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Decreasing coronary artery constriction by giving aspirin is a primary objective in managing unstable angina. Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation, reducing the risk of clot formation and improving blood flow in the coronary arteries. This helps to alleviate chest pain and prevent myocardial infarction.
Choice B rationale
Increasing afterload for the left ventricle to maximize cardiac output is not a desirable objective in managing unstable angina. Increasing afterload would increase the workload on the heart, which is counterproductive in patients with angina. The goal is to reduce the heart’s workload and improve blood flow.
Choice C rationale
Increasing preload to reduce overall cardiac workload is not a primary objective in managing unstable angina. Increasing preload would increase the volume of blood returning to the heart, potentially worsening symptoms. The focus is on reducing myocardial oxygen demand and improving coronary perfusion.
Choice D rationale
Reducing arterial inflammation by administering statins is a long-term strategy for managing cardiovascular disease, but it is not the immediate objective in managing unstable angina.
Statins help to lower cholesterol levels and reduce inflammation, but the immediate goal in unstable angina is to relieve chest pain and prevent myocardial infarction.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Septic shock is characterized by a systemic inflammatory response to infection, leading to vasodilation, increased capillary permeability, and hypotension. The patient’s elevated temperature, tachycardia, and hypotension are consistent with septic shock. In septic shock, the body’s response to infection leads to widespread inflammation and impaired tissue perfusion.
Choice B rationale
Hypovolemic shock is caused by a significant loss of blood or fluids, leading to decreased circulating volume and hypotension. While the patient’s hypotension and tachycardia could be consistent with hypovolemic shock, the elevated temperature suggests an infectious process, making septic shock more likely.
Choice C rationale
Cardiogenic shock is caused by the heart’s inability to pump effectively, leading to decreased cardiac output and tissue perfusion. While hypotension and tachycardia are consistent with cardiogenic shock, the elevated temperature is not a typical finding. Cardiogenic shock is usually associated with conditions like myocardial infarction or severe heart failure.
Choice D rationale
Neurogenic shock is caused by a disruption in the autonomic pathways, leading to vasodilation and hypotension. It is typically associated with spinal cord injuries or severe head trauma. The patient’s elevated temperature and tachycardia are not consistent with neurogenic shock, making septic shock the more likely diagnosis.
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