The nurse is caring for a 35-year-old male who is diagnosed with epididymitis. Which statement would indicate the client understands teaching about this condition?
"I should use a heating pad for the pain."
"Epididymitis usually resolves without any treatment."
"My sexual partner needs to be treated with antibiotics."
"After radiation treatment, I will make sure that I am meticulous about skin care."
The Correct Answer is C
A. While applying heat may help alleviate discomfort, it is not the primary recommendation for managing epididymitis. The treatment often involves rest, elevation of the scrotum, and possibly cold packs rather than heat. Therefore, while this statement may reflect some understanding, it is not the best indicator of comprehensive knowledge about managing epididymitis.
B. While some mild cases may improve spontaneously, most cases of epididymitis require treatment, especially if they are caused by infections, which are common. Untreated epididymitis can lead to complications, so this statement does not reflect an accurate understanding of the condition.
C. If epididymitis is caused by a sexually transmitted infection (STI), it is important that sexual partners be evaluated and treated as well to prevent reinfection. This indicates a proper understanding of the implications of the condition, particularly in the context of STIs.
D. It seems to reference concerns related to radiation therapy, which is unrelated to the management or understanding of epididymitis. This indicates a lack of focus on the current diagnosis and its implications.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. A calcaneal spur, or heel spur, is a bony growth on the heel bone. This condition is primarily related to foot pain and does not have a direct link to the risk of stroke. It is not relevant in assessing stroke risk.
B. This elevated blood pressure reading indicates hypertension, which is a significant risk factor for both ischemic and hemorrhagic strokes. Chronic high blood pressure can lead to damage of the blood vessels, making them more susceptible to rupture, thus increasing the risk of a hemorrhagic stroke.
C. A glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) level of 5.9% indicates well-managed diabetes, typically within the normal range for most individuals. While uncontrolled diabetes is a risk factor for vascular disease, this level suggests adequate control and does not specifically indicate an increased risk for a hemorrhagic stroke.
D. A recent endoscopy itself does not indicate a direct risk for a hemorrhagic stroke. However, if the endoscopy was performed due to gastrointestinal bleeding or if it resulted in complications, there could be indirect implications, but this option alone does not signify an increased risk for hemorrhagic stroke.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. One of the most common and concerning symptoms of uterine (endometrial) cancer is abnormal vaginal bleeding, particularly postmenopausal bleeding. Any bleeding after menopause is considered abnormal and can be an indicator of uterine cancer, warranting further investigation.
B. While a malodorous vaginal discharge can occur due to infections or other gynecological issues, it is not a primary symptom of uterine cancer. Uterine cancer more commonly presents with bleeding rather than discharge.
C. While some women with advanced uterine cancer may experience pelvic pain or pain during intercourse (dyspareunia), this symptom is not as characteristic or early in the disease process. It is more associated with conditions like endometriosis or pelvic inflammatory disease.
D. This is not a typical manifestation of uterine cancer. While vulvar swelling may be seen in cases of vulvar cancer or infections, it is not a common symptom associated with uterine cancer specifically. Symptoms related to uterine cancer primarily focus on abnormal bleeding.
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