The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis who suddenly becomes short of breath, anxious, and restless.

The vital signs are: heart rate 130 beats/minute, respirations 42/minute, blood pressure 90/50, and pulse oximetry is 90%. An intravenous infusion of normal saline is running at 75ml/hr. The nurse elevates the head of the bed and applies nasal oxygen at 2L/min.

What action should the nurse take next?

Administer the PRN antianxiety medication.

Call the rapid response team.

Increase the intravenous infusion rate.

Prepare for mechanical ventilation.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale

Administering the PRN antianxiety medication is not the most appropriate next step. The client’s symptoms—shortness of breath, anxiety, restlessness, tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension, and decreased oxygen saturation—are indicative of a potential pulmonary embolism, a life-threatening complication of deep vein thrombosis. While anxiety can be a symptom of a pulmonary embolism, treating it without addressing the underlying cause could delay necessary medical intervention.

Choice B rationale

Calling the rapid response team is the most appropriate next step. The client’s symptoms suggest a potential pulmonary embolism, a serious and life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical intervention. The rapid response team can provide the necessary urgent care.

Choice C rationale

Increasing the intravenous infusion rate is not the most appropriate next step. While hydration is important, it would not address the immediate life-threatening situation. The client’s symptoms suggest a potential pulmonary embolism, which requires immediate medical intervention.

Choice D rationale

Preparing for mechanical ventilation is not the most appropriate next step. While the client’s decreased oxygen saturation and increased respiratory rate suggest respiratory distress, the priority should be to address the potential pulmonary embolism. Mechanical ventilation may be necessary later depending on the client’s response to treatment.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Dark urine can be a sign of liver dysfunction, which can be a side effect of glipizide. Therefore, reviewing the results of liver function studies would be an appropriate initial action to determine if the medication is affecting the client’s liver function.

Choice B rationale

While increasing water intake can sometimes help with certain side effects of medications, it would not address the potential issue of liver dysfunction indicated by the dark urine.

Choice C rationale

Checking the client’s weight would not provide information related to the cause of the dark urine.

Choice D rationale

Testing a sample of urine for the presence of occult blood could be useful if there was a suspicion of bleeding, but it would not address the potential issue of liver dysfunction indicated by the dark urine.

A. Hold the warfarin until the next day’s dose and notify the laboratory. B. Administer the daily dose of warfarin and notify the healthcare provider so tomorrow’s dose can be adjusted. C. Administer the daily dose of warfarin as these are the expected side effects of the medication. D. Hold the warfarin until the healthcare provider is notified of the assessment findings.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale

While holding the warfarin and notifying the laboratory could be appropriate actions in some situations, they would not address the immediate concern of the large, new ecchymotic areas on the client’s extremities.

Choice B rationale

Administering the daily dose of warfarin and notifying the healthcare provider for a dose adjustment the next day could potentially exacerbate the bleeding risk, given the presence of the large, new ecchymotic areas.

Choice C rationale

Large, new ecchymotic areas are not expected side effects of warfarin. They could indicate a serious problem such as excessive anticoagulation.

Choice D rationale

The presence of large, new ecchymotic areas could indicate excessive anticoagulation, which is a serious complication of warfarin therapy. Therefore, holding the warfarin and notifying the healthcare provider of the assessment findings would be the most appropriate initial action.

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Choice A rationale

Choice B rationale

Choice C rationale

Choice D rationale

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client has been taking glipizide for 6 months and reports to the nurse that their urine has become darker since starting the medication. What should be the nurse’s initial action?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Choice B rationale

Choice C rationale

Choice D rationale

The nurse is preparing to administer a client’s warfarin sodium 5 mg PO at 1900. Upon entering the client’s room, the nurse finds several large, new ecchymotic areas on the client’s extremities. What should be the nurse’s initial action?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Choice B rationale

Choice C rationale

Choice D rationale

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