A patient diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis asks the nurse, “How does this blood thinner heparin work?” Which response is most accurate?
Heparin makes the blood less thick and easier to flow.
Heparin dissolves the clot and decreases the formation of platelets.
Heparin does not thin the blood; it prevents new clots from forming.
Heparin decreases the number of platelets so the blood flows more easily.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Heparin does not actually thin the blood or make it less thick. Instead, it works by increasing the activity of antithrombin, a protein that inhibits blood clotting. This prevents new clots from forming and existing clots from growing larger.
Choice B rationale
Heparin does not dissolve clots or decrease the formation of platelets. Its primary action is to increase the activity of antithrombin, which in turn inactivates thrombin and factor Xa, two key players in the blood clotting process.
Choice C rationale
This statement is accurate. Heparin does not thin the blood; instead, it prevents new clots from forming and existing clots from growing larger. It does this by increasing the activity of antithrombin, which in turn inactivates thrombin and factor Xa.
Choice D rationale
Heparin does not decrease the number of platelets or make the blood flow more easily. Its primary action is to increase the activity of antithrombin, which in turn inactivates thrombin and factor Xa.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Omitted meals can lead to hypoglycemia, not diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). DKA is caused by a lack of insulin, not a lack of food intake.
Choice B rationale
Polydipsia and polyphagia are symptoms of hyperglycemia, not causes of DKA. They occur as the body tries to compensate for high blood sugar levels.
Choice C rationale
Not taking enough insulin is a primary cause of the development of DKA. Without enough insulin, the body begins to break down fat for fuel, which produces acids known as ketones.
Choice D rationale
An insulin overdose would lead to hypoglycemia, not DKA. DKA is caused by a lack of insulin, not an excess.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Drawing the peak level at 0930, which is 30 minutes after the start of the infusion, would be too early. The medication would not have had enough time to reach its peak level in the blood.
Choice B rationale
The peak level of gentamicin is typically evaluated 30 minutes after the completion of the infusion. Since the infusion is administered over 1 hour, the peak level would be expected to be drawn at 10001.
Choice C rationale
Drawing the peak level at 2030, which is 12 hours after the start of the infusion, would not provide an accurate representation of the peak level of gentamicin. This is because the medication would have been metabolized and excreted over this period.
Choice D rationale
Drawing the peak level at 2100, which is 12.5 hours after the start of the infusion, would not provide an accurate representation of the peak level of gentamicin. This is because the medication would have been metabolized and excreted over this period.
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