The nurse is caring for a client three hours after percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) with stent placement. The client now complains of 5/10 chest pain. The client is visibly diaphoretic and anxious. The ECG shows ST segment elevations. The vital signs are as follows: BP: 156/82, HR: 110, RR: 20, T: 98.6, and Sp02: 94% on 2L nasal canula. The nurse anticipates which intervention in this situation?

Fluid bolus and IV heparin

A medical prescription for a stat chest x-ray

Coronary artery bypass (CABG) surgery if there is no improvement in 12 hours

Repeat PCI with thrombectomy or angioplasty

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A) Fluid bolus and IV heparin:
A fluid bolus and IV heparin may be used in certain cardiovascular conditions, such as hypotension or in the setting of acute coronary syndrome (ACS) to prevent clot formation. However, in this case, the client is experiencing chest pain with ST segment elevations, a sign of ongoing ischemia, which suggests that the problem may be related to inadequate blood flow to the heart. Fluid boluses could exacerbate the condition if the heart's function is compromised, and IV heparin alone would not address the root cause of the ischemia. Hence, this is not the most appropriate intervention at this time.

B) A medical prescription for a stat chest x-ray:
A chest x-ray would not be immediately indicated in this scenario. The client's symptoms of chest pain, diaphoresis, and ST segment elevations on the ECG are indicative of myocardial ischemia or infarction, not a respiratory or structural lung issue that would be visualized on an x-ray. The priority here is to address the myocardial ischemia, which could be due to a clot or reocclusion in the coronary artery. A stat chest x-ray would not address the underlying cardiac issue, so this is not the best choice.

C) Coronary artery bypass (CABG) surgery if there is no improvement in 12 hours:
While CABG is an option for clients with severe coronary artery disease, it is generally considered when PCI is not successful or when there are multiple blockages that cannot be stented. In this situation, since the client has just undergone PCI and is now experiencing signs of reocclusion (e.g., chest pain, ST segment elevations), a repeat PCI with thrombectomy or angioplasty is more appropriate and urgent. Waiting 12 hours would delay treatment and risk further myocardial damage. CABG would not be the first intervention after a failed PCI within hours of the procedure.

D) Repeat PCI with thrombectomy or angioplasty:
This is the most appropriate intervention. The client's symptoms (chest pain, diaphoresis, and ST segment elevations) are suggestive of reocclusion of the stented artery, a complication that can occur after PCI. Reocclusion can cause further myocardial ischemia and infarction. A repeat PCI with thrombectomy or angioplasty would aim to reopen the blocked artery and restore blood flow to the myocardium, which is the immediate priority in this situation. This intervention can help resolve the ischemia and prevent further damage to the heart muscle.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. "I will report any unusual movements or behaviors to my healthcare provider."
This statement is correct and indicates that the client understands the potential side effects of levodopa/carbidopa. The medication can cause dyskinesia (uncontrolled movements) and other behavioral changes, so the client should report these symptoms to their healthcare provider for possible adjustment of the treatment plan.

B. "I may experience nausea while taking this medication."
This is also correct. Nausea is a common side effect of levodopa/carbidopa, especially when starting the medication. Taking it with food may help reduce this side effect, but some clients may still experience nausea.

C. "I will take this medication with a high-protein meal."
This statement is incorrect. Levodopa is absorbed best on an empty stomach or with a low-protein meal. Protein can interfere with the absorption of levodopa because amino acids (found in proteins) compete with levodopa for absorption across the blood-brain barrier. Therefore, it's recommended that levodopa/carbidopa be taken either 30 minutes before or 1 hour after meals, especially those high in protein.

D. "I will avoid sudden changes in position to prevent dizziness or falls."
This statement is correct. Levodopa/carbidopa can cause orthostatic hypotension (a sudden drop in blood pressure when standing up), which increases the risk of dizziness and falls. The client should be advised to change positions slowly and use support when rising from a sitting or lying position to avoid injury.

A. Wheezes on inspiration B. Blood pressure 170/90 C. Tachypnea D. Bradycardia

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Wheezes on inspiration: Wheezing is typically associated with obstructive pulmonary conditions, such as asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and is caused by narrowing of the airways. In ARDS, the pathophysiology involves inflammation and fluid accumulation in the alveoli, which leads to impaired oxygen exchange but not typically to wheezing. Instead, crackles or rales (a fine, wet sound) are more commonly heard on auscultation in ARDS, particularly as fluid builds up in the alveoli.

B. Blood pressure 170/90: Although ARDS can be associated with hemodynamic instability, elevated blood pressure (170/90 mmHg) is not a typical finding. In fact, ARDS is more commonly associated with low blood pressure or hypotension, particularly if the client is experiencing shock or is on mechanical ventilation. Elevated blood pressure could suggest another issue, such as pain, anxiety, or the use of medications like vasopressors. It is not directly related to the pulmonary edema seen in ARDS.

C. Tachypnea: Tachypnea, or rapid breathing, is a hallmark clinical manifestation of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). In ARDS, pulmonary edema (fluid accumulation in the lungs) occurs as a result of damage to the alveolar-capillary membrane, leading to impaired gas exchange. The body attempts to compensate for decreased oxygenation by increasing the respiratory rate, leading to tachypnea. This is an early sign of respiratory distress and often precedes hypoxemia and other more severe manifestations. The nurse should closely monitor for tachypnea, as it can indicate worsening respiratory compromise.

D. Bradycardia: Bradycardia, or a slow heart rate, is not typically associated with ARDS. In fact, tachycardia (an elevated heart rate) is more commonly seen in response to hypoxia, respiratory distress, or as a compensatory mechanism for low blood pressure in critical illness. Bradycardia could indicate other issues such as vagal stimulation, medication effects, or electrolyte imbalances but is not characteristic of ARDS itself. 4o mini

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who will be taking levodopa/carbidopa for Parkinson's disease. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The nurse is caring for a client in acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). The chest x-ray displays evidence of pulmonary edema. The nurse assesses the client for which clinical manifestation?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A client with a medical diagnosis of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is being placed in the prone position. The nurse explains to family members that, "This will help improve ventilation by:

The nurse is caring for a client who is being discharged following coronary artery bypass graft surgery. Discharge instructions would include:

Which nursing intervention is the highest priority for the client who has had an acute anterior wall myocardial infarction?

The nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of teaching the proper use of a metered dose inhaler (MDI) with a spacer. The nurse understands the aching has been effective when the client demonstrates which technique?

The nursing is caring for a client in the Intensive Care Unit on a ventilator. Which intervention(s) should the nurse implement? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

The nurse monitors the client in the immediate hours following an anterior-lateral wall myocardial infarction for the development of:

The nurse caring for a critically ill client would suspect the development of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) in which of the following situations? The client with:

A client with an acute stroke must receive Alteplase 0.9 mg/kg (maximum dose 90 mg) over 60 minutes. The client weighs 220 pounds. How many mg should the client receive? (Round to the nearest tenth, do not use trailing zeros)