The nurse is caring for a client three hours after percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) with stent placement. The client now complains of 5/10 chest pain. The client is visibly diaphoretic and anxious. The ECG shows ST segment elevations. The vital signs are as follows: BP: 156/82, HR: 110, RR: 20, T: 98.6, and Sp02: 94% on 2L nasal canula. The nurse anticipates which intervention in this situation?
Fluid bolus and IV heparin
A medical prescription for a stat chest x-ray
Coronary artery bypass (CABG) surgery if there is no improvement in 12 hours
Repeat PCI with thrombectomy or angioplasty
The Correct Answer is D
A) Fluid bolus and IV heparin:
A fluid bolus and IV heparin may be used in certain cardiovascular conditions, such as hypotension or in the setting of acute coronary syndrome (ACS) to prevent clot formation. However, in this case, the client is experiencing chest pain with ST segment elevations, a sign of ongoing ischemia, which suggests that the problem may be related to inadequate blood flow to the heart. Fluid boluses could exacerbate the condition if the heart's function is compromised, and IV heparin alone would not address the root cause of the ischemia. Hence, this is not the most appropriate intervention at this time.
B) A medical prescription for a stat chest x-ray:
A chest x-ray would not be immediately indicated in this scenario. The client's symptoms of chest pain, diaphoresis, and ST segment elevations on the ECG are indicative of myocardial ischemia or infarction, not a respiratory or structural lung issue that would be visualized on an x-ray. The priority here is to address the myocardial ischemia, which could be due to a clot or reocclusion in the coronary artery. A stat chest x-ray would not address the underlying cardiac issue, so this is not the best choice.
C) Coronary artery bypass (CABG) surgery if there is no improvement in 12 hours:
While CABG is an option for clients with severe coronary artery disease, it is generally considered when PCI is not successful or when there are multiple blockages that cannot be stented. In this situation, since the client has just undergone PCI and is now experiencing signs of reocclusion (e.g., chest pain, ST segment elevations), a repeat PCI with thrombectomy or angioplasty is more appropriate and urgent. Waiting 12 hours would delay treatment and risk further myocardial damage. CABG would not be the first intervention after a failed PCI within hours of the procedure.
D) Repeat PCI with thrombectomy or angioplasty:
This is the most appropriate intervention. The client's symptoms (chest pain, diaphoresis, and ST segment elevations) are suggestive of reocclusion of the stented artery, a complication that can occur after PCI. Reocclusion can cause further myocardial ischemia and infarction. A repeat PCI with thrombectomy or angioplasty would aim to reopen the blocked artery and restore blood flow to the myocardium, which is the immediate priority in this situation. This intervention can help resolve the ischemia and prevent further damage to the heart muscle.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Severe left-sided heart failure and resultant pulmonary edema:
While pulmonary edema due to left-sided heart failure can lead to respiratory distress and hypoxemia, it is not characteristic of ARDS. ARDS is a form of non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema, meaning it is not caused by heart failure. In contrast, pulmonary edema from heart failure is typically related to increased pressure in the pulmonary circulation. Therefore, while this client is at risk for respiratory issues, the cause of their pulmonary edema is distinct from the pathology seen in ARDS.
B) Acute renal failure associated with pyelonephritis:
Acute renal failure from pyelonephritis can lead to various complications, including electrolyte imbalances and fluid overload, which may affect respiratory function. However, renal failure by itself is not a direct cause of ARDS. ARDS is typically associated with an inflammatory response to injury or infection in the lungs, not specifically renal issues. While it’s important to monitor for pulmonary complications in critically ill clients, this situation does not directly suggest ARDS.
C) A traumatic brain injury with accompanying spinal cord injury:
Traumatic brain injury (TBI) with spinal cord injury can lead to respiratory compromise, particularly due to neurological impairment affecting the respiratory muscles or the brain's ability to control breathing. However, ARDS is not the most direct consequence of these injuries. ARDS is primarily caused by acute lung injury from direct or indirect insults to the lungs, such as trauma, pneumonia, or sepsis. Although this combination of injuries may cause respiratory distress, it is not a typical cause of ARDS unless there is another underlying lung injury.
D) Hypoxemia, refractory to oxygen therapy:
This is the hallmark sign of ARDS. ARDS is characterized by the development of acute hypoxemia that is resistant to high levels of supplemental oxygen therapy. This refractory hypoxemia is due to widespread inflammation and damage to the alveolar-capillary membrane, leading to impaired gas exchange. In ARDS, the lungs become less compliant, and the ability to oxygenate blood is significantly reduced, even with mechanical ventilation and high levels of oxygen. Therefore, a critically ill client with hypoxemia that does not improve with oxygen therapy would raise suspicion for the development of ARDS.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. "I will report any unusual movements or behaviors to my healthcare provider."
This statement is correct and indicates that the client understands the potential side effects of levodopa/carbidopa. The medication can cause dyskinesia (uncontrolled movements) and other behavioral changes, so the client should report these symptoms to their healthcare provider for possible adjustment of the treatment plan.
B. "I may experience nausea while taking this medication."
This is also correct. Nausea is a common side effect of levodopa/carbidopa, especially when starting the medication. Taking it with food may help reduce this side effect, but some clients may still experience nausea.
C. "I will take this medication with a high-protein meal."
This statement is incorrect. Levodopa is absorbed best on an empty stomach or with a low-protein meal. Protein can interfere with the absorption of levodopa because amino acids (found in proteins) compete with levodopa for absorption across the blood-brain barrier. Therefore, it's recommended that levodopa/carbidopa be taken either 30 minutes before or 1 hour after meals, especially those high in protein.
D. "I will avoid sudden changes in position to prevent dizziness or falls."
This statement is correct. Levodopa/carbidopa can cause orthostatic hypotension (a sudden drop in blood pressure when standing up), which increases the risk of dizziness and falls. The client should be advised to change positions slowly and use support when rising from a sitting or lying position to avoid injury.
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