The nurse is caring for a client who fell while walking to the bathroom. Upon transfer to the intensive care unit, the client is provided with a history of vomiting twice. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Complete head-to-toe neurological assessment

Determine client’s last dose of corticosteroids

Determine neurological baseline prior to the fall

Administer a PRN antiemetic as prescribed

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason: A head-to-toe neurological assessment is the priority after a fall with vomiting, as it evaluates for traumatic brain injury or increased intracranial pressure. Vomiting may indicate neurological compromise. This assessment guides urgent interventions, as undetected brain injury can lead to rapid deterioration in the ICU.

Choice B reason: Determining the last corticosteroid dose is relevant for managing underlying conditions but not the immediate priority post-fall. Vomiting and potential head injury require neurological assessment first, as brain trauma poses an acute risk, whereas corticosteroid timing is secondary to stabilizing neurological status.

Choice C reason: Determining the neurological baseline before the fall is useful for comparison but not the first action. A current neurological assessment identifies acute changes or injuries post-fall, as vomiting may signal brain injury, making immediate evaluation critical to guide treatment in the ICU.

Choice D reason: Administering a PRN antiemetic controls vomiting, improving comfort, but does not address the underlying cause. Vomiting post-fall may indicate neurological injury, requiring immediate assessment. Neurological evaluation takes precedence to rule out brain trauma before symptomatic treatment with antiemetics.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Gluten avoidance is specific to celiac disease, not Crohn’s, which involves autoimmune inflammation of the gut. Crohn’s dietary triggers vary individually, and gluten is not a universal issue. An elimination diet identifies specific triggers, making this response incorrect for Crohn’s management.

Choice B reason: Fluid restriction is not a primary limitation in Crohn’s disease, which often requires adequate hydration due to diarrhea. Restricting fluids could worsen dehydration. An elimination diet to identify trigger foods is more appropriate, as dietary management focuses on individual sensitivities, not fluid limits.

Choice C reason: An elimination diet identifies trigger foods causing Crohn’s flare-ups, as sensitivities vary. By systematically removing and reintroducing foods, patients pinpoint irritants like dairy or fiber, personalizing dietary management. This is the most effective approach, as Crohn’s lacks universal dietary restrictions, making it the correct response.

Choice D reason: Limiting calcium and iron is not standard for Crohn’s, as these nutrients are often deficient due to malabsorption. Supplementation may be needed. An elimination diet better addresses symptom triggers, as nutrient restriction could exacerbate deficiencies without targeting inflammatory food triggers.

A. Hemoccult test on sputum collected from hemoptysis B. Chest x-ray or computerized tomography scan C. Sputum culture positive for Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Positive purified protein derivative skin test

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Hemoccult tests detect blood in sputum, indicating hemoptysis, a TB symptom, but do not confirm Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection. Sputum culture is required for definitive diagnosis, as hemoccult only identifies bleeding, which is nonspecific and can occur in other respiratory conditions.

Choice B reason: Chest x-ray or CT scans show pulmonary abnormalities like cavitary lesions in TB but are not confirmatory. Radiographic findings suggest TB but require microbiological confirmation via sputum culture, as similar patterns occur in other lung diseases, making imaging supportive but not diagnostic.

Choice C reason: Sputum culture positive for Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the gold standard for TB diagnosis. It directly identifies the pathogen, confirming active infection. Other tests like skin tests or imaging are suggestive but not definitive, as they cannot distinguish active TB from latent or other conditions.

Choice D reason: A positive PPD skin test indicates TB exposure or latent infection but does not confirm active disease. False positives occur with prior BCG vaccination or nontuberculous mycobacteria. Sputum culture is needed to verify active TB, making the skin test less definitive.

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The nurse is caring for a client who fell while walking to the bathroom. Upon transfer to the intensive care unit, the client is provided with a history of vomiting twice. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Nursing Test Bank

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