The nurse is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with primary hypertension. Which pathophysiological mechanism does the nurse recognize as the cause of primary hypertension?
Failure of angiotensin I to convert to angiotensin II.
Increased levels of angiotensin in the bloodstream.
The release of excess sodium and water.
Juxtaglomerular cells’ systemic effect after renin release.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Failure of angiotensin I to convert to angiotensin II would reduce blood pressure, as angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor. Primary hypertension involves increased angiotensin II, driving vasoconstriction and sodium retention. This failure is not a cause, making it incorrect for the mechanism of hypertension.
Choice B reason: Increased angiotensin II levels in the bloodstream cause vasoconstriction and aldosterone-mediated sodium retention, elevating blood pressure in primary hypertension. This is a key mechanism in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS), driving chronic hypertension. This aligns with cardiovascular pathophysiology, making it the correct mechanism for the nurse to recognize.
Choice C reason: Excess sodium and water retention is a consequence of RAAS activation in hypertension, not the primary cause. Angiotensin II drives this retention via aldosterone. While important, sodium/water release is secondary to angiotensin’s vasoconstrictive effects, making this less precise than increased angiotensin levels.
Choice D reason: Juxtaglomerular cells release renin, initiating RAAS, but the systemic effect is mediated by angiotensin II, not renin alone. Hypertension results from angiotensin’s vasoconstriction and sodium retention. This choice is less specific, as angiotensin II’s actions are the direct cause, making it incorrect.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Mixed sensorineural-conductive hearing loss involves both inner ear and middle ear pathology. Ototoxic medications primarily damage cochlear hair cells, causing sensorineural loss. Mixed loss requires dual mechanisms (e.g., infection and ototoxicity), which are less likely than pure sensorineural loss from medication in this acute scenario.
Choice B reason: Presbycusis is age-related sensorineural hearing loss, not medication-induced. Ototoxic drugs cause acute, bilateral sensorineural loss by damaging cochlear hair cells, unrelated to aging. The client’s new onset loss linked to medication points to ototoxicity, not presbycusis, making this an incorrect type for this scenario.
Choice C reason: Conductive hearing loss results from middle ear or external ear issues, like wax or ossicle damage. Ototoxic medications target inner ear hair cells, causing sensorineural loss. Conductive loss is unrelated to ototoxicity, as drugs do not affect sound conduction, making this incorrect for medication-induced hearing loss.
Choice D reason: Sensorineural hearing loss is caused by ototoxic medications, which damage cochlear hair cells or auditory nerves, impairing sound processing. Bilateral, new-onset loss aligns with ototoxicity’s pathophysiology, as seen with drugs like aminoglycosides. This is the expected type, supported by audiology evidence linking ototoxins to inner ear damage.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: An incompetent lower esophageal sphincter causes GERD, leading to heartburn, not lower left quadrant pain or fever. Diverticulitis involves inflamed intestinal outpouchings, unrelated to esophageal function. This choice is incorrect, as it does not explain the client’s abdominal and systemic symptoms.
Choice B reason: Esophagitis from gastric reflux causes epigastric or chest pain, not lower left quadrant pain or fever. Diverticulitis results from inflamed diverticula in the colon, causing localized pain and infection. This choice is incorrect, as it misaligns with diverticulitis’s colorectal pathophysiology.
Choice C reason: A weakened diaphragm may cause hiatal hernia, leading to reflux symptoms, not lower left quadrant pain or fever. Diverticulitis involves colonic diverticula inflammation, unrelated to diaphragmatic issues. This choice is incorrect, as it does not account for the client’s localized abdominal presentation.
Choice D reason: Diverticulitis results from inflammation of diverticula, outpouchings at weak points in the intestinal wall, typically in the sigmoid colon. These become infected, causing lower left quadrant pain and fever. This mechanism directly supports the client’s presentation, aligning with gastrointestinal pathophysiology evidence.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.