Which type of leukemia can be successfully treated by chemotherapy resulting in suppression, but not complete remission?

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL).

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL).

Acute myelogenous leukemia (AML).

Hairy-cell leukemia.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason: Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) is an aggressive malignancy of lymphoid cells, often achieving complete remission with intensive chemotherapy, especially in children. Suppression without remission is not typical, as ALL responds well to treatment, targeting rapidly dividing blast cells. CLL, a slower-progressing disease, better fits the description of suppression without complete cure.

Choice B reason: Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) is a low-grade malignancy of mature B-lymphocytes, often managed with chemotherapy to suppress disease progression rather than achieve complete remission. CLL’s indolent nature means it can be controlled, but residual disease persists due to slow cell turnover, aligning with the question’s description of suppression.

Choice C reason: Acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) is an aggressive malignancy of myeloid cells, requiring intensive chemotherapy or stem cell transplant for potential remission. Suppression without remission is less common, as AML treatment aims for complete response. CLL’s chronic nature makes it more likely to result in disease control rather than cure.

Choice D reason: Hairy-cell leukemia is a rare, indolent B-cell malignancy highly responsive to purine analogs, often achieving long-term remission or near-cure. Suppression without remission is not characteristic, as treatment typically yields durable responses. CLL’s partial response to chemotherapy better matches the scenario of ongoing disease suppression.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Normal antidiuretic hormone levels regulate water balance but do not address thirst in diabetes mellitus, which is caused by hyperglycemia-induced osmotic diuresis. Controlling blood glucose corrects the osmotic imbalance driving thirst, making ADH maintenance less relevant and incorrect for this manifestation’s control.

Choice B reason: Increasing serum osmolarity would worsen thirst, as high osmolarity from hyperglycemia causes dehydration and polydipsia. The goal is to reduce osmolarity by controlling blood glucose, which mitigates osmotic diuresis. This choice is incorrect, as it exacerbates the mechanism driving the client’s symptom.

Choice C reason: Increased acetone excretion occurs in diabetic ketoacidosis, not directly related to thirst in new diabetes mellitus. Thirst results from hyperglycemia causing osmotic diuresis. Controlling glucose levels addresses the root cause, making acetone excretion irrelevant and incorrect for managing polydipsia in this client.

Choice D reason: Increased thirst in diabetes mellitus results from hyperglycemia causing osmotic diuresis, leading to dehydration. Controlling blood glucose levels reduces serum osmolarity, preventing fluid loss and alleviating thirst. This is the primary physiologic mechanism, supported by endocrinology evidence for managing diabetes-related polydipsia effectively.

A. An incompetent lower esophageal sphincter. B. Esophagitis due to reflux of gastric contents. C. A weakened diaphragm with high abdominal pressure. D. An outpouching at a weak point in the intestinal wall.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: An incompetent lower esophageal sphincter causes GERD, leading to heartburn, not lower left quadrant pain or fever. Diverticulitis involves inflamed intestinal outpouchings, unrelated to esophageal function. This choice is incorrect, as it does not explain the client’s abdominal and systemic symptoms.

Choice B reason: Esophagitis from gastric reflux causes epigastric or chest pain, not lower left quadrant pain or fever. Diverticulitis results from inflamed diverticula in the colon, causing localized pain and infection. This choice is incorrect, as it misaligns with diverticulitis’s colorectal pathophysiology.

Choice C reason: A weakened diaphragm may cause hiatal hernia, leading to reflux symptoms, not lower left quadrant pain or fever. Diverticulitis involves colonic diverticula inflammation, unrelated to diaphragmatic issues. This choice is incorrect, as it does not account for the client’s localized abdominal presentation.

Choice D reason: Diverticulitis results from inflammation of diverticula, outpouchings at weak points in the intestinal wall, typically in the sigmoid colon. These become infected, causing lower left quadrant pain and fever. This mechanism directly supports the client’s presentation, aligning with gastrointestinal pathophysiology evidence.

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Which type of leukemia can be successfully treated by chemotherapy resulting in suppression, but not complete remission?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus is experiencing increased thirst. Which physiologic mechanism must take place to control this manifestation?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The nurse is caring for a client with diverticulitis who presents with fever and acute lower left quadrant abdominal pain. Which pathophysiologic mechanism supports the client’s clinical presentation?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Which type of leukemia can be successfully treated by chemotherapy resulting in suppression, but not complete remission?

A client who is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of primary diabetes insipidus (DI) asks the nurse if they will need insulin therapy. Which response should the nurse provide?

The urinalysis results for a client diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) indicate the presence of protein in the urine. The impairment of which structure within the kidney results in proteinuria?

The nurse is explaining to a client the reasons why a burn wound becomes infected. Which reason(s) should the nurse include? (Select all that apply)

The nurse is caring for an older adult client with heart failure (HF) and multiple comorbidities. Which finding(s) in the client’s history are consistent with the client developing HF? (Select all that apply)

During an assessment, the nurse determines that a client with hypothyroidism has a goiter. An increase in which laboratory test result(s) supports this finding?

The laboratory findings of a client with cirrhosis of the liver indicate high serum ammonia levels. As a result of this increased ammonia level, which symptom is this client likely to exhibit?

A client is admitted with gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding and a flat plate of the abdomen reveals an orange-sized mass in the stomach. After identifying the mass upon palpation of the abdomen, which location should the nurse document this finding?