The nurse is caring for a client who received a transfusion of Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP) for an acute GI bleed related to accidental wantarin overdose. Which laboratory result would indicate the need for an additional unit of Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP) to correct the problem caused by the overdose?
INR = 3.7 (normal 0.9-1.1)
Hemoglobin = 6.3g/dL (normal Female: 11.7-15.5 g/dL: Male: 14-17:3 g/dL)
Fibrinogen = 90mg/dL (normal 200-400mg/dL)
Platelets = 101,000 mm3 (normal 150,000-450,000 mm3)
The Correct Answer is A
A. INR = 3.7: The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is a measure of blood clotting. An INR greater than
3.0 indicates that the blood is not clotting properly, which can be caused by warfarin overdose. An elevated INR requires FFP to correct coagulopathy.
B. Hemoglobin = 6.3g/dL: This is low, indicating anemia, but it is not directly related to warfarin overdose. The primary issue here is coagulopathy, not anemia.
C. Fibrinogen = 90mg/dL: Fibrinogen levels may be decreased in various conditions, but this alone does not necessarily require additional FFP unless it’s below a critical threshold. Fibrinogen is not the main marker for warfarin overdose.
D. Platelets = 101,000 mm3: This platelet count is within the lower end of the normal range but does not indicate that more FFP is needed in response to warfarin overdose.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. This test set is incomplete for diagnosing DIC. While PT and fibrinogen are important, the eosinophil count is not a key test for DIC.
B. While fibrin degradation products are useful, lactic acid is not specific for DIC and may indicate other issues. A complete blood count is helpful but not definitive for diagnosing DIC.
C. These are key markers for DIC. An elevated D-dimer indicates clot formation and breakdown, while fibrinogen and fibrin degradation products are used to assess clotting and fibrinolysis, both of which are abnormal in DIC.
D. Complete blood count, complete metabolic panel, and prothrombin time are general tests and can give some clues, but they are not definitive for diagnosing DIC.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. “I probably will not have any transfusion reactions from my own blood.” - Autologous transfusions
generally have a lower risk of transfusion reactions because they involve the client’s own blood.
B. “This is the blood I’ve been giving for the past 6 weeks for myself.” - This is a correct understanding of the process of autologous blood donation, where the client donates blood for their own use.
C. An autologous blood transfusion involves the collection and storage of a patient's own blood for later transfusion. This significantly reduces the risk of bloodborne infections, such as hepatitis, HIV, and other blood-borne diseases, as the blood is coming from the patient themselves.
D. “Since I have O negative blood, it’s a good thing I’m getting my own blood.” - The client may not need additional teaching here because O negative blood is universally compatible, but the reason they are getting their own blood is due to the autologous donation process, not because of blood type.
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