The nurse is caring for an older adult client with cranial arteritis. The nurse should understand that this type of headache is caused by which of the following mechanisms?

Vasodilation

Inflammation

Muscle tension

Brain tumor

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. While vasodilation can contribute to some types of headaches, such as migraines, cranial arteritis (also known as temporal arteritis) is not primarily caused by vasodilation.
B. Cranial arteritis is an inflammatory condition affecting the lining of the arteries, particularly the temporal arteries. The inflammation causes the headache and can lead to serious complications like vision loss if not treated promptly with corticosteroids.
C. Muscle tension is the typical cause of tension-type headaches, not cranial arteritis.
D. A brain tumor may cause headaches, but it is not the mechanism behind cranial arteritis. Cranial arteritis is a vascular inflammatory disorder.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Regular insulin typically reaches its peak action 2 to 4 hours after administration. Since the insulin was given at 0730, the nurse should be most alert for signs of hypoglycemia between 0930 and 1130 when the insulin is most effective in lowering blood glucose.
B. This time frame is too late for peak action, as regular insulin's peak typically occurs earlier, between 2 to 4 hours after administration.
C. While this is within the range of insulin’s peak effect, it doesn't account for the full duration of potential hypoglycemia. The best window for observing symptoms would extend until 1130.
D. Hypoglycemia is most likely to occur during the peak action of the insulin, which is earlier, not this extended time frame.

A. dextrose B. acetaminophen (Tylenol) C. propranolol (Inderal) D. potassium iodide (SSKI)

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Dextrose is used to treat hypoglycemia (low blood sugar), and there is no indication from the vital signs provided that the client is hypoglycemic.
B. Acetaminophen is an antipyretic (fever reducer), but the priority is not to treat the fever immediately in this case. The client's blood pressure and heart rate need to be addressed first.
C. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that can help reduce both heart rate and blood pressure. The client has severe hypertension (200/110) and tachycardia (heart rate of 160), which may indicate a hypertensive crisis or severe adrenergic overactivity. Propranolol can help lower the heart rate and blood pressure quickly, which is crucial to avoid further cardiovascular complications.
D. Potassium iodide is used in cases of thyroid storm or exposure to radioactive iodine. It is not appropriate for this situation, as the symptoms do not indicate a thyroid emergency or radiation exposure.

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The nurse is caring for an older adult client with cranial arteritis. The nurse should understand that this type of headache is caused by which of the following mechanisms?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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