The nurse is caring for an older adult who reports severe chronic pain. To best assess age- related physiologic changes that could influence plans for initiating an appropriate drug regimen, the nurse prepares the patient for which laboratory evaluation?

Serum complement level

Glomerular filtration rate

White blood count

Electroencephalogram

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A.   Serum complement levels are used to evaluate the complement system, which is part of the immune system and plays a role in inflammation and infection. While complement levels can be important in certain inflammatory and autoimmune conditions, they are not typically used to assess age-related changes that impact drug metabolism or the appropriate selection of pain medications.
B.   The Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) is a key measure of kidney function. In older adults, kidney function often declines with age, affecting the metabolism and excretion of medications. Many drugs are primarily eliminated through the kidneys, and impaired kidney function can lead to drug accumulation, increased risk of toxicity, and altered therapeutic efficacy. Assessing GFR helps in adjusting medication doses to avoid adverse effects and ensure safe and effective treatment.
C.   A White Blood Count (WBC) measures the number of white blood cells in the blood and is used to assess the body's response to infection, inflammation, and other conditions. While it provides valuable information about immune function and potential infections, it does not directly address age-related changes in drug metabolism or pharmacokinetics. Therefore, it is not the primary test for evaluating how aging might affect drug therapy.
D.   An Electroencephalogram (EEG) records the electrical activity of the brain and is used to diagnose neurological conditions such as seizures, sleep disorders, and brain abnormalities. Although EEGs are valuable in certain neurological assessments, they do not provide information on how age-related physiological changes affect drug metabolism or how to tailor drug regimens for older adults.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. While lack of energy can be a barrier to exercise, it is not as specific to the fear of falling.
B. This is a common barrier to exercise for many people, but it does not specifically address the fear of falling.

C. If the patient is experiencing pain with movement, it is important to address this before starting an exercise program. However, fear of falling is a more specific concern related to osteoporosis.
D. Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by decreased bone density, which can increase the risk of fractures. A walking program can help improve bone health and reduce the risk of falls. However, many people with osteoporosis may be reluctant to start a walking program due to fear of falling.

A. develop withdrawal symptoms 48 to 72 hours after the last intake of alcohol B. be prescribed oxazepam (Serax) C. experience delirium tremors within 4 hours of hospitalization D. receive 1 ounce of alcohol every 4 hours while awake

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically begin within 6 to 24 hours after the last drink, with peak symptoms usually occurring between 48 and 72 hours. Delirium tremens (DTs), a severe form of withdrawal, usually develops within this timeframe if not managed properly.
B. This choice is partially correct but less specific. Oxazepam (Serax) is a benzodiazepine that can be prescribed to manage alcohol withdrawal symptoms, especially in patients with liver impairment, as it is metabolized differently from other benzodiazepines. However, it is not the only medication used; lorazepam (Ativan) and diazepam (Valium) are also commonly used to manage withdrawal symptoms.

C. This choice is less likely to be correct. Delirium tremens (DTs) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal characterized by confusion, agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. DTs typically develop between 48 and 72 hours after the last drink, not within 4 hours. Symptoms that occur within 4 hours of hospitalization are more likely to be early withdrawal symptoms rather than DTs.
D. This choice is not a standard treatment for alcohol withdrawal. While some facilities might use a tapering protocol to gradually reduce alcohol intake, in most cases, the goal is to manage withdrawal symptoms using medications rather than providing alcohol. The use of medication such as benzodiazepines is preferred to manage symptoms and prevent complications. Giving alcohol is not a standard or recommended approach for managing withdrawal in acute care settings.

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The nurse is caring for an older adult who reports severe chronic pain. To best assess age- related physiologic changes that could influence plans for initiating an appropriate drug regimen, the nurse prepares the patient for which laboratory evaluation?

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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