The nurse is caring for client who has had a stroke and who received tissue plasminogen activator(t-PA) 6 hours ago. The nurse identifies which of the following symptoms are indications of an intracerebral hemorrhage post thrombolytic therapy?
Fever and cardiac dysthymias
Decline in neurological status and elevated blood pressure
Abdominal distention and anorexia
Positive Coombs test and low urine output
The Correct Answer is B
A) Fever and cardiac dysrhythmias:
Fever and cardiac dysrhythmias are not the hallmark signs of an intracerebral hemorrhage (ICH) following thrombolytic therapy. While fever can occur in the aftermath of a stroke, it is more commonly linked to infection or other complications. Cardiac dysrhythmias can occur in stroke patients due to autonomic dysfunction or other underlying conditions but are not specific to a hemorrhagic complication.
B) Decline in neurological status and elevated blood pressure:
A decline in neurological status (e.g., deterioration of consciousness, confusion, or focal deficits) and elevated blood pressure are classic signs of an intracerebral hemorrhage (ICH) following thrombolytic therapy, especially when tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) is administered. tPA works by dissolving blood clots but increases the risk of bleeding. An ICH could present with sudden worsening neurological symptoms, such as decreased level of consciousness, weakness, or sensory loss, and elevated blood pressure is a compensatory response to the hemorrhage.
C) Abdominal distention and anorexia:
Abdominal distention and anorexia are not typical indicators of an intracerebral hemorrhage following tPA therapy. These symptoms may indicate other issues, such as gastrointestinal problems or metabolic imbalances, but they are not directly related to hemorrhagic complications following thrombolytic therapy for stroke.
D) Positive Coombs test and low urine output:
A positive Coombs test indicates the presence of antibodies against red blood cells, which may suggest hemolytic anemia or an autoimmune process. Low urine output can result from a variety of conditions, including kidney dysfunction, dehydration, or shock, but these are not specific indicators of an intracerebral hemorrhage following tPA.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Insert an oral airway and suction as needed:
This is generally not the first intervention for impaired glossopharyngeal (CN IX) and vagus nerve (CN X) function. The glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves play a critical role in swallowing, gag reflex, and the ability to protect the airway. While an airway might be necessary in cases of severe dysfunction, withholding food and fluids is a more immediate and specific concern when these cranial nerves are impaired, as it prevents aspiration risk.
B) Withhold oral fluids and food:
The glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) is involved in taste and swallowing, and the vagus nerve (CN X) is crucial for the motor control of the pharynx and larynx, which are involved in swallowing and protecting the airway. Dysfunction of these nerves can lead to difficulty swallowing (dysphagia), increased risk for aspiration, and the inability to protect the airway effectively. Withholding oral fluids and food helps prevent aspiration, a major risk when these nerves are impaired, until further assessment and management can be done.
C) Apply artificial tears to protect the cornea:
While it is important to protect the cornea in patients with cranial nerve dysfunction (specifically the facial nerve, CN VII), this does not directly relate to the glossopharyngeal (CN IX) and vagus (CN X) nerves. The glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves affect swallowing and airway protection, not eye lubrication. Applying artificial tears would not address the risk associated with impaired swallowing or airway protection.
D) Speak clearly while facing the patient:
Although speaking clearly and facing the patient might be helpful for communication, especially if the patient has difficulty with speech due to nerve impairment, it does not address the immediate and more critical concern of impaired swallowing and airway protection associated with dysfunction of the glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves. The primary concern is ensuring the patient is not at risk for aspiration while eating or drinking.
Correct Answer is ["D","E"]
Explanation
A) Pneumonia: Pneumonia is a direct cause of ARDS, as it involves direct inflammation and infection of the lung tissue, leading to impaired oxygen exchange and damage to the alveolar-capillary membrane. It results in fluid accumulation in the lungs, which is a key characteristic of ARDS.
B) Drowning: Drowning is another direct cause of ARDS. It involves the aspiration of water into the lungs, which directly damages lung tissue, causing pulmonary edema and impaired oxygenation.
C) Aspiration: Aspiration of food, liquid, or vomit into the lungs is also a direct cause of ARDS. The aspirated material can lead to chemical pneumonia, bacterial infection, and inflammation of the lungs, which in turn causes ARDS.
D) Sepsis: Sepsis is an indirect cause of ARDS. It can lead to widespread inflammation throughout the body, including the lungs, through the release of inflammatory mediators (cytokines, interleukins, etc.). These systemic inflammatory responses can increase capillary permeability in the lungs, causing fluid to leak into the alveoli, which leads to ARDS.
E) Blood Transfusion: Blood transfusion, particularly when associated with transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI), is an indirect cause of ARDS. TRALI is a serious complication that can result from receiving blood products, where the transfused blood causes an immune response leading to pulmonary damage. It indirectly triggers inflammation and fluid buildup in the lungs, contributing to ARDS.
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