When using an ECG rhythm strip to quickly estimate the ventricular rhythm for a client, the nurse should:
use the 3 second markers to count the number of QRS complexes in 6 seconds and multiply by 10
print a 1-minute EGG strip and count the number of QRS complexes
calculate the number of small squares between one QRS complexes and the next one and divide by 1500
count the number of large squares in the R-R interval and divide by 300
The Correct Answer is A
A) Use the 3-second markers to count the number of QRS complexes in 6 seconds and multiply by 10:
The 3-second markers on the ECG strip represent a fixed time interval. By counting the number of QRS complexes in the 6-second interval (i.e., two 3-second markers), you can estimate the heart rate by multiplying the number of QRS complexes by 10. This method is quick and effective for calculating heart rate in an emergency setting, such as in arrhythmias or when time is of the essence.
B) Print a 1-minute ECG strip and count the number of QRS complexes:
While this is another way to assess the heart rate, it is not a quick method, especially in emergency situations. It is more time-consuming because it involves printing out a full strip (or ensuring you have enough data to calculate a full minute). This approach may be useful for detailed analysis but is not optimal for quickly estimating the ventricular rhythm.
C) Calculate the number of small squares between one QRS complex and the next one and divide by 1500:
This method is more complex and is used for calculating the heart rate with a more precise ECG reading. It requires counting the number of small squares between two QRS complexes and dividing by 1500 (the number of small squares in one minute). This method is accurate but not the fastest option for quickly estimating the heart rate during an emergency.
D) Count the number of large squares in the R-R interval and divide by 300:
counting the number of large squares between two R-R intervals and dividing by 300, you get the heart rate. However, this method is less commonly used in emergency situations because it requires more time and may not be as immediate as using the 3-second markers. It is more applicable when doing a detailed analysis of the rhythm.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Includes the head-to-toe anterior and posterior assessment:
While a head-to-toe physical assessment is important in trauma care, it is not the first priority. The primary assessment focuses on immediate life-threatening conditions, and the head-to-toe assessment would come after the initial stabilization of the patient's airway, breathing, circulation, and disability. A comprehensive physical examination is crucial but secondary to addressing urgent life threats.
B) Focuses on the ABCDE's to identify life-threatening problems:
The ABCDE's (Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure) are the primary framework for assessing and stabilizing a trauma patient. This approach is used to identify and prioritize life-threatening problems. It ensures that the most critical issues, such as airway obstruction, respiratory failure, shock, and neurological deficits, are addressed first. This protocol is the gold standard in trauma care and is the most appropriate initial assessment in major trauma.
C) Includes the use of a standard pain scale and past medical/surgical history:
While it is important to assess pain and gather a medical history in the trauma patient, these are secondary considerations after addressing immediate threats to life. Pain management and obtaining a full history are crucial, but they are not as urgent as addressing airway, breathing, and circulation issues. These should be part of a more detailed secondary assessment once the patient is stable.
D) Consists of analyzing the results of the diagnostic testing:
Diagnostic testing, such as imaging studies and lab work, are important but are not the first priority. The primary assessment should focus on the ABCDE's. Diagnostic results are typically analyzed after the patient is stabilized, as they provide additional information but do not address immediate survival needs.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Treatment plan will need to be changed to achieve the desired effect:
The decrease in the carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) levels from 50 ng/mL to 10 ng/mL suggests that the cancer is responding to the current treatment, not that the treatment plan needs to be changed. A drop in CEA levels typically indicates a positive response to treatment, such as chemotherapy, in reducing the number or size of cancer cells.
B) Cancer treatment is having the desired effect on killing cancer cells:
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a tumor marker that is often elevated in individuals with certain cancers, particularly colorectal cancer. A decrease in CEA levels, as noted in this case (from 50 ng/mL to 10 ng/mL), usually signifies that the treatment is successfully targeting the cancer and reducing the tumor burden. This drop suggests that the chemotherapy is effectively killing cancer cells and reducing the size or activity of the tumor.
C) Client is at greater risk for tumor lysis syndrome:
Tumor lysis syndrome typically occurs when large numbers of cancer cells die rapidly, releasing their intracellular contents into the bloodstream, which can lead to metabolic disturbances like hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, and renal failure. It is more common in aggressive hematologic cancers, such as leukemia or lymphoma, and typically presents with a rapid rise in tumor marker levels, not a decrease.
D) Cancer has increased size and metastatic sites:
An increase in tumor size or the development of metastatic sites would typically result in an increase in CEA levels, not a decrease. Since CEA levels have dropped, it is more likely that the cancer is shrinking or responding to the current treatment. This finding is more indicative of a positive response rather than disease progression.
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