The nurse is caring for four clients: Client A, who has emphysema and whose oxygen saturation is 94%; Client B, with a postoperative hemoglobin of 8.2 mg/dL (82 g/L); Client C, newly admitted with a potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L (3.8 mmol/L); and Client D, scheduled for an appendectomy who has a white blood cell (WBC) count of 14,000 mm (14 x 10^9/L). Which intervention should the nurse implement? Reference Range:. Hemoglobin [14 to 18 g/dL (140 to 180 g/L)]. Potassium [3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L (3.5 to 5.0 mmol/L)]. White Blood Cell [5000 to 10,000/mm² (5 to 10 x 10^9/L)].

Move Client D into an isolation room 24 hours before surgery.

Ask the dietitian to add a banana to Client C's breakfast tray.

Increase Client A's oxygen to 4 liters a minute per cannula.

Verify that Client B has two units of packed cells available.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

The correct answer is Choice D.

Choice A rationale: Moving Client D into an isolation room 24 hours before surgery is not necessary. The client’s white blood cell (WBC) count is 14,000 mm (14 x 10^9/L), which is higher than the normal range of 5000 to 10,000/mm² (5 to 10 x 10^9/L). This indicates that the client may have an infection. However, it is not standard practice to isolate clients scheduled for surgery based solely on an elevated WBC count. Other factors, such as the presence of specific infectious diseases, would dictate the need for isolation.

Choice B rationale: Asking the dietitian to add a banana to Client C’s breakfast tray is not necessary. The client’s potassium level is 3.8 mEq/L (3.8 mmol/L), which is within the normal range of 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L (3.5 to 5.0 mmol/L). Therefore, there is no need to increase the client’s potassium intake.

Choice C rationale: Increasing Client A’s oxygen to 4 liters a minute per cannula is not necessary. The client has emphysema and their oxygen saturation is 94%, which is within the normal range. Increasing the oxygen flow rate could lead to oxygen toxicity or suppress the client’s respiratory drive, leading to respiratory depression or failure.

Choice D rationale: Verifying that Client B has two units of packed cells available is the correct intervention. The client’s postoperative hemoglobin level is 8.2 mg/dL (82 g/L), which is lower than the normal range of 14 to 18 g/dL (140 to 180 g/L). This indicates that the client is anemic and may require a blood transfusion. Therefore, it is important to ensure that packed cells are available if needed.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A radial pulse is the pulse felt at the wrist, where the radial artery runs along the thumb side of the forearm. It is one of the most common sites for measuring a person's heart rate.
To measure a radial pulse, the examiner should place two or three fingers over the radial artery, just below the wrist crease, and apply gentle pressure until a pulsation is felt. The examiner should not use the thumb, as it has its own pulse and may interfere with the accuracy of the measurement. The examiner should count the number of beats for 15, 30, or 60 seconds, depending on the regularity and rate of the pulse.
In the picture, the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is using the thumb to measure the radial pulse, which is incorrect. The practical nurse (PN) should demonstrate the correct pulse site to the UAP and explain why using the thumb is not appropriate. This will help to ensure that the UAP obtains an accurate and reliable pulse rate for the client.

Therefore, option C is the correct answer, while options A, B, and D are incorrect.

Option A is incorrect because instructing the UAP to report any abnormal findings does not address the error in technique.

Option B is incorrect because reminding the UAP to check the pulse volume does not address the error in technique.

Option D is incorrect because confirming the accuracy of the pulse rate obtained by the UAP does not address the error in technique.

A. The client will have no signs of infection in the wound by day 7. B. The client will report pain level of 4/10 or less during dressing changes. C. The client will consume at least 75% of meals and snacks daily. D. The client will reposition self in bed every 2 hours with assistance. E. The client will demonstrate proper wound care technique before discharge.

Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

The client will have no signs of infection in the wound by day 7. Rationale: This outcome is appropriate because it sets a specific timeframe (day 7) for assessing the absence of infection in the wound. It provides a clear and measurable criterion for evaluating the effectiveness of the wound care plan.

Choice B rationale:

The client will report a pain level of 4/10 or less during dressing changes. Rationale: Pain management is an essential aspect of wound care. Setting a target pain level (4/10 or less) during dressing changes allows for monitoring and adjustment of pain management strategies, making it an appropriate outcome.

Choice C rationale:

The client will consume at least 75% of meals and snacks daily. Rationale: While nutrition is important for wound healing, this outcome is less directly related to the wound itself. Monitoring meal consumption is a valuable goal for overall health but may not be as closely tied to wound improvement as infection control, pain management, or wound care technique.

Choice D rationale:

The client will reposition self in bed every 2 hours with assistance. Rationale: Repositioning every 2 hours is an important preventive measure for pressure ulcer development. However, this choice may not be appropriate for this particular client if they are unable to reposition themselves, even with assistance. This outcome may not be achievable for all clients, and a more individualized goal may be necessary.

Choice E rationale:

The client will demonstrate proper wound care technique before discharge. Rationale: Ensuring that the client can perform proper wound care techniques independently or with minimal assistance is a crucial outcome. This ensures that the client can maintain wound hygiene and prevent complications after discharge.

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Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The practical nurse (PN) observes a newly hired unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who is counting a client's radial pulse as seen in the picture. Which action should the PN take?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is updating the plan of care for a client who has a pressure ulcer on the sacrum. Which of the following outcomes are appropriate for this client? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]

Explanation

A nurse is providing education to a client prescribed an antidepressant for their phobia. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

The nurse is planning care for a client who has a fourth-degree midline laceration that occurred during vaginal delivery of an 8-pound 10-ounce (3674 grams) infant. Which intervention has the highest priority for this client?

The nurse observes a client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is excessively drooling and prepares to suction the client's oral cavity. Which action should the nurse include?

The practical nurse (PN) learns that a client who is receiving chemotherapy has developed stomatitis. Which information should the PN obtain from the client during a focused assessment?

A nurse is caring for a client who has hypertension and is prescribed metoprolol, a beta blocker. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

What is the most common type of shock in children?

A nurse is caring for a client who has variant angina and is prescribed verapamil. Which of the following are expected outcomes of this medication? (Select all that apply.)

The mother of a child with cerebral palsy (CP) asks the nurse if her child's impaired movements will worsen as the child grows. Which response provides the best explanation?