The nurse is caring for patient with a history of atrial fibrillation who is prescribed warfarin. Sometimes I forget my medication, so l double up doses when I remember " The patient's PT and INR are highly elevated. The nurse anticipates the transfusion of which blood product?
Packed Red Blood Cells (PRBC's)
Platelets
Cryoprecipitate
Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP)
The Correct Answer is D
A) Packed Red Blood Cells (PRBCs):
Packed Red Blood Cells are typically transfused when there is anemia or significant blood loss leading to low hemoglobin levels. In the case of warfarin overdose or elevated PT/INR, the problem is related to coagulation and not red blood cell count.
B) Platelets:
Platelets are typically transfused when there is thrombocytopenia or a need to address platelet dysfunction (e.g., in patients with bleeding due to low platelet counts). However, the elevated PT and INR in this case are related to the coagulation cascade being inhibited by warfarin, not platelet deficiency.
C) Cryoprecipitate:
Cryoprecipitate is primarily used to replace clotting factors such as fibrinogen, factor VIII, and von Willebrand factor. It is typically transfused in patients with hemophilia or bleeding disorders related to low fibrinogen levels. However, in this case, the issue is related to warfarin-induced inhibition of clotting factors (specifically the vitamin K-dependent factors: II, VII, IX, and X), not a deficiency in fibrinogen or specific clotting factors addressed by cryoprecipitate.
D) Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP):
Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP) is the most appropriate choice for this patient. FFP contains all the coagulation factors, including the vitamin K-dependent factors that warfarin inhibits. When a patient on warfarin presents with elevated PT and INR (which indicates impaired clotting ability), FFP is used to replace the clotting factors and help reverse the effects of warfarin.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Ondansetron and Metoclopramide:
Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, and Metoclopramide is a medication that promotes gastric emptying and is often used to treat nausea and gastroesophageal reflux. Neither of these medications are typically associated with ototoxicity. Ototoxicity is more commonly seen with medications that affect the inner ear or auditory pathways, particularly those that are used in high doses or over extended periods.
B) Aspirin and ibuprofen:
Both aspirin (a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, NSAID) and ibuprofen are associated with ototoxicity, especially when used in high doses or over prolonged periods. Ototoxicity from NSAIDs can result in symptoms such as tinnitus (ringing in the ears) or even hearing loss. This occurs due to their impact on the cochlea and auditory nerve.
C) Metoprolol and Furosemide:
Metoprolol is a beta-blocker used for managing hypertension, heart failure, and other cardiovascular conditions, and Furosemide is a diuretic often used to treat conditions such as heart failure and edema. Neither of these drugs is typically associated with ototoxicity. However, high doses of furosemide, particularly when given rapidly or intravenously, may be associated with transient hearing loss.
D) Pantoprazole and Docusate Sodium:
Pantoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) used to treat gastrointestinal issues like acid reflux and ulcers. Docusate sodium is a stool softener used to treat constipation. Neither of these medications is known to cause ototoxicity. These drugs generally do not affect hearing or the auditory system.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Assess lung sounds and respiratory rate at least every 2 hours:
In a patient with Myasthenia Gravis (MG) who has undergone thymectomy, monitoring respiratory status is critical. MG is a neuromuscular disorder that can lead to respiratory muscle weakness, which may be exacerbated post-operatively. Assessing lung sounds and respiratory rate at least every 2 hours is crucial to detect early signs of respiratory compromise, including hypoventilation or atelectasis.
B) Assess and document pain level once every shift:
While pain assessment is important, especially after a thymectomy, this action alone does not directly address the immediate issue of ineffective breathing patterns. In patients with MG, respiratory complications are a priority concern. Pain management should be part of the overall plan of care, but it is secondary to monitoring respiratory function in the acute post-operative period. Pain can affect respiratory effort, but it should be managed in the context of more pressing issues like airway and breathing assessment.
C) Maintain sequential compression device (SCD's) while in bed:
While SCDs are important in preventing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in patients who are immobile, they are not the most appropriate intervention for a client with ineffective breathing patterns. The primary concern in a post-thymectomy patient with MG is respiratory function.
D) Elevate the head of the bed ten degrees:
While elevating the head of the bed can help with comfort and potentially improve ventilation in some patients, it is not the most specific or effective intervention for managing ineffective breathing patterns in a patient with MG. For optimal respiratory function, it is typically more beneficial to elevate the head of the bed to a higher degree (e.g., 30-45 degrees) to enhance lung expansion, rather than just 10 degrees.
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