The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with an injury to the cerebellum who cannot complete the Romberg Test. Which nursing intervention is priority?
Ensure bed alarm is on when leaving patient's room
Vary schedule to prevent memorization and boredom
Clarify misinformation and reorient when confused
Deep breathing and incentive spirometer education
The Correct Answer is A
A) Ensure bed alarm is on when leaving patient's room:
The cerebellum plays a critical role in coordinating movement, balance, and motor control. An injury to this area can lead to impaired coordination and dysfunction in balance, making it difficult for the patient to perform the Romberg test (which evaluates balance and proprioception). Given that the patient cannot complete the Romberg test, this suggests the risk of falling or injuring themselves due to impaired balance and coordination. The priority nursing intervention is to ensure safety by using a bed alarm to alert staff if the patient attempts to get out of bed, thereby preventing falls.
B) Vary schedule to prevent memorization and boredom:
While changing the patient's routine may help with engagement, it is not the priority intervention for a patient with cerebellar injury. The primary concern in this situation is safety due to the patient's impaired balance. Addressing issues related to cognitive function or boredom may be important but comes after ensuring the patient’s physical safety.
C) Clarify misinformation and reorient when confused:
Reorientation may be necessary if the patient is confused or disoriented, but this is not the primary concern related to cerebellar injury. The patient’s balance and motor coordination are the most pressing issues. While mental clarity is important, preventing falls due to impaired motor control is the immediate priority.
D) Deep breathing and incentive spirometer education:
Deep breathing exercises and using an incentive spirometer are essential to prevent respiratory complications, particularly after surgery or immobility. However, in this case, the priority concern is the patient's safety related to impaired balance from the cerebellar injury. Respiratory interventions are important but should be addressed after ensuring that the patient is safe from falls and other immediate physical risks.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Urine output of 0.5-1 mL/kg/hr:
This is a positive outcome during fluid resuscitation for burn patients. Adequate urine output is a key indicator of proper renal perfusion and fluid balance. A urine output of 0.5-1 mL/kg/hr is considered optimal for burn patients during the first 24-48 hours of resuscitation. It suggests that the kidneys are receiving sufficient blood flow and that the patient is responding appropriately to the fluids being administered.
B) Serum sodium level 149 mEq/L (normal 135-145):
A serum sodium level of 149 mEq/L is high and indicates hypernatremia, which is a common complication of excessive fluid resuscitation, particularly with the use of crystalloids. Hypernatremia can lead to cerebral edema, altered mental status, and other severe complications. Therefore, this finding would suggest improper fluid management and would not be considered a positive outcome.
C) Blood pressure 82/54:
A blood pressure of 82/54 is hypotensive, which is concerning in a burn patient. Hypotension indicates inadequate tissue perfusion, potentially leading to shock and organ failure. While low blood pressure may occur in the initial stages of resuscitation due to the rapid shifts in fluid, a sustained low blood pressure is not a positive outcome.
D) Heart rate 124 beats per minute:
A heart rate of 124 beats per minute is tachycardic and suggests that the patient is compensating for hypovolemia or inadequate circulatory volume, possibly due to insufficient fluid resuscitation. Although an elevated heart rate may occur as a compensatory mechanism in the initial stages of burn resuscitation, sustained tachycardia indicates ongoing volume depletion or inadequate perfusion and is not an ideal outcome.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Unstable:
Unstable angina is the type of angina most closely related to an impending myocardial infarction (MI). It is characterized by unpredictable chest pain that occurs at rest or with minimal exertion, or that increases in severity or frequency. Unstable angina represents a medical emergency and can progress to an MI if not promptly treated. It occurs when there is increased myocardial oxygen demand and a partially occluded coronary artery, often due to a ruptured atherosclerotic plaque.
B) Variant (Prinzmetal's) angina:
Variant angina, also known as Prinzmetal's angina, is caused by a spasm of the coronary artery, which temporarily narrows or obstructs blood flow. Although it can be severe and may occur at rest, it is typically transient and is not directly related to the development of an MI. Variant angina usually responds to medications such as nitrates or calcium channel blockers, and while it can be dangerous, it is not the most likely type of angina associated with a myocardial infarction.
C) Chronic stable angina:
Chronic stable angina occurs with predictable patterns, typically with exertion or stress, and resolves with rest or nitroglycerin. It does not usually indicate an impending MI, as it is a chronic condition caused by atherosclerosis that limits the heart's blood supply under stress. While chronic stable angina increases the risk of MI over time, it is not directly associated with an imminent heart attack.
D) Nocturnal angina:
Nocturnal angina refers to chest pain that occurs during the night or early morning hours, often during sleep. It may be associated with sleep apnea, GERD, or increased sympathetic tone during sleep. This type of angina is less commonly linked to an impending MI compared to unstable angina, although it should still be evaluated for any underlying cardiovascular issues.
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