The nurse is educating a class of expectant parents about fetal development. What is considered fetal age of viability?
8
24
20
14
The Correct Answer is C
A. At 8 weeks, the embryo is transitioning into the fetal stage of development and is not viable outside the womb. Organs are still in the early stages of formation.
B. While some sources may consider 24 weeks the age of "reasonable viability" with intensive medical support, many medical guidelines recognize viability beginning as early as 20 weeks under optimal conditions.
C. The age of 20 weeks is often cited as the lower threshold of fetal viability due to improved neonatal care, although survival rates improve significantly after this point.
D. At 14 weeks, the fetus is in the second trimester, but it is far too underdeveloped for survival outside the womb.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Deepening pigmentation, such as changes in the skin like melasma or linea nigra, is considered a presumptive sign of pregnancy, as it is subjective and not specific to pregnancy alone.
B. Abdominal enlargement is a probable sign of pregnancy as it is more objective and can be caused by the growing uterus. However, it may also occur due to other conditions, such as tumors or fluid accumulation.
C. Ballottement, a sensation felt when the fetus rebounds after being pushed gently, is a probable sign of pregnancy due to its reliance on the presence of a fetus.
D. A positive pregnancy test result is a probable sign because it detects hCG levels, which are strongly associated with pregnancy but may also be elevated in other conditions.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. If only one parent carries the dominant gene, the probability of a child inheriting it is not 25%, as this would imply a recessive-recessive pairing.
B. In a scenario where one parent is heterozygous for a dominant gene and the other has two recessive alleles, each child has a 50% chance of inheriting the dominant gene. This outcome is based on Mendelian inheritance.
C. A 75% chance would occur in a scenario involving two heterozygous parents, which is not described here.
D. 100% inheritance occurs only when one parent is homozygous dominant, which is also not indicated in this case.
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