The nurse is monitoring a 53-year-old client who is undergoing a cardiac exercise stress test after experiencing an episode of angina. Which client finding will require the test to be discontinued?

Heart rate of 134 bpm

Mild shortness of breath

Three premature ventricular contractions in a row

Blood pressure 152/88 mmHg

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Heart rate of 134 bpm. A heart rate of 134 bpm is expected during a cardiac stress test, as the goal is to increase the heart rate to a target range to evaluate cardiac function under stress.

B. Mild shortness of breath. Mild shortness of breath is a common response to exercise and is not an indication to stop the test unless it becomes severe or is accompanied by other concerning symptoms like chest pain or cyanosis.

C. Three premature ventricular contractions in a row indicate a potential serious arrhythmia (ventricular tachycardia), which is a contraindication for continuing the stress test. This finding could place the client at risk for life-threatening cardiac events, such as ventricular fibrillation.

D. Blood pressure 152/88 mmHg. This is a slightly elevated but normal physiological response to exercise and does not warrant discontinuation of the test unless the blood pressure rises to dangerously high levels (e.g., >200/110 mmHg).

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Correct Answer is ["B","C","D","E"]

Explanation

A. Facilitates the insertion of a pacemaker: This is not the purpose of an electrophysiology study (EPS). A pacemaker may be considered based on the results, but EPS itself does not insert the device.

B. Assesses the function of the SA node: EPS is used to assess the electrical activity of the heart, including the function of the SA node.

C. Evaluates the effectiveness of prescribed antiarrhythmic medication: EPS can help evaluate how well antiarrhythmic medications are controlling arrhythmias.

D. Identifies the location of abnormal sites within cardiac muscle: EPS is often used to locate areas of the heart responsible for abnormal electrical conduction and arrhythmias.

E. Treats certain arrhythmias through the process of ablation: One of the therapeutic purposes of EPS is to perform ablation, which can treat certain arrhythmias by destroying abnormal tissue.

A. Intracranial pressure (ICP) is now 15. B. The patient voids 250 mL over 2 hours. C. The patient's pupils are dilated and sluggish. D. Seizure behavior is absent.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Intracranial pressure (ICP) is now 15: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure (ICP). The intended effect of the medication is to lower ICP. A decrease in ICP to 15 mmHg is within the normal range and indicates the medication has worked effectively.

B. The patient voids 250 mL over 2 hours is incorrect. While mannitol promotes diuresis, the amount of urine output alone does not directly indicate a reduction in ICP. The goal is to lower ICP, which is best assessed by measuring the ICP itself.

C. The patient's pupils are dilated and sluggish is incorrect. Dilated and sluggish pupils can be a sign of increased ICP, not a response to effective treatment.

D. Seizure behavior is absent is incorrect. While mannitol can help reduce ICP and potentially prevent seizures, the absence of seizure behavior is not a direct indicator of the medication's effect on ICP.

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The nurse is monitoring a 53-year-old client who is undergoing a cardiac exercise stress test after experiencing an episode of angina. Which client finding will require the test to be discontinued?

Nursing Test Bank

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