The nurse is performing an admission assessment on a client who is being admitted for right- sided heart failure. Which statement made by the patient would be consistent with right-sided heart failure?

"I feel short of breath when I lie down flat."

"The sputum I have been coughing up is pink."

"The nurse I had yesterday said she could hear fluid in my lungs."

"I feel like fluid has been building up in my abdominal area."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A.   This symptom is consistent with orthopnea, which is common in left-sided heart failure rather than right-sided heart failure. In orthopnea, patients experience shortness of breath when lying flat because fluid accumulates in the lungs due to impaired left ventricular function.
B.   Pink-tinged or blood-tinged sputum, known as hemoptysis, can occur in left-sided heart failure due to pulmonary congestion and elevated pressures in the pulmonary circulation. This symptom is not typically associated with right-sided heart failure.
C.   This finding suggests pulmonary congestion, which is more indicative of left-sided heart failure. In left- sided heart failure, fluid backs up into the lungs, leading to crackles or rales on auscultation.
D.   This statement is consistent with right-sided heart failure. In right-sided heart failure, the right ventricle fails to effectively pump blood into the pulmonary circulation, causing fluid to back up into the venous system. This can lead to peripheral edema (such as in the legs and abdomen) and abdominal distension due to ascites (fluid accumulation in the peritoneal cavity).

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Moon face is a common side effect of prednisone, a corticosteroid medication. It results from fluid retention and redistribution of fat in the face. While moon face is a cosmetic concern, it is not typically an urgent or critical finding that requires immediate reporting.
B. Muscle spasticity may develop but does not pose an immediate risk that requires urgent attention.
C. Alcohol consumption can interact with both prednisone and interferon B-1a, potentially leading to increased drug levels in the bloodstream and intensifying side effects. This interaction can also increase the risk of liver problems, which is particularly concerning given that interferon B-1a may cause liver issues.
D. Birth control pills have been a subject of debate regarding their effect on multiple sclerosis but a study found that oral hormonal contraceptives did not appear to be associated with an increased chance of MS relapses.

A. Platelet factor 4 (PF4) bound with heparin forming a PF4-heparin complex. B. Abnormally long von Willebrand factor. C. A deficiency of the enzyme ADAMTS13. D. Platelets which are coated with antibodies.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. This option describes a phenomenon seen in heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), not in immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). In HIT, antibodies against the PF4-heparin complex can cause platelet activation and aggregation, leading to thrombocytopenia. However, this is not characteristic of ITP.
B. Abnormally long von Willebrand factor is seen in von Willebrand disease (VWD), not in ITP. VWD is a bleeding disorder caused by deficiency or dysfunction of von Willebrand factor, which plays a key role in platelet adhesion and aggregation. It is not typically associated with ITP.

C. ADAMTS13 deficiency is characteristic of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP), not ITP. TTP is a rare blood disorder where small blood clots form in blood vessels throughout the body, leading to thrombocytopenia (low platelet count) and other complications. It is distinct from ITP.
D. In immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), the immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys platelets, leading to a low platelet count. Antibodies, particularly anti-platelet antibodies such as anti-GP IIb/IIIa or anti-GP Ib/IX, coat the surface of platelets. These antibody-coated platelets are recognized and destroyed by macrophages in the spleen and liver, contributing to thrombocytopenia.

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The nurse is performing an admission assessment on a client who is being admitted for right- sided heart failure. Which statement made by the patient would be consistent with right-sided heart failure?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Explanation

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Explanation

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