A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), and a new prescription for riluzole. The nurse understands that this medication works in which of the following ways?
It suppresses the virus which is responsible for causing the inflammation of the nerve.
It prevents the breakdown of acetylcholine to increase the amount available at the neuromuscular junction.
It reduces inflammation in the CNS to prevent further demyelination of nerves in the central nervous system.
It slows the progression of the disease by decreasing the release of glutamate in the brain.
The Correct Answer is D
A. ALS is not caused by a virus or inflammation of the nerves. It is a progressive neurodegenerative disease affecting the motor neurons in the brain and spinal cord.
B. While acetylcholine breakdown is involved in other neurological conditions (such as myasthenia gravis), ALS primarily affects motor neurons and does not directly involve acetylcholine metabolism at the neuromuscular junction.
C. ALS does not typically involve significant inflammation or demyelination (which is more characteristic of conditions like multiple sclerosis). Therefore, reducing CNS inflammation is not a therapeutic target in ALS.
D. Riluzole, the medication prescribed for ALS, works by decreasing the release of glutamate, which is a neurotransmitter that can be toxic to nerve cells in high amounts. In ALS, excessive glutamate release is believed to contribute to motor neuron degeneration. By reducing glutamate release, riluzole may help protect motor neurons and slow the progression of the disease.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Dopamine is primarily associated with other neurodegenerative disorders such as Parkinson's disease, not Alzheimer's disease. In Alzheimer's disease, the focus is on changes related to beta-amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles rather than alterations in dopamine levels.
B. Glial cells, including astrocytes and microglia, play a role in the brain's immune response and support of neurons. In Alzheimer's disease, there is evidence of increased activation and proliferation of glial cells in response to neuroinflammation and the presence of beta-amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles. This reactive gliosis is a secondary response to the underlying pathology.
C. Glutamate is an excitatory neurotransmitter involved in various brain functions, including memory and learning. In Alzheimer's disease, there is evidence of dysregulation in glutamate metabolism and
signaling pathways. This dysregulation can lead to excitotoxicity, which contributes to neuronal damage and cell death seen in the disease.
D. Neurofibrillary tangles are one of the hallmark pathological features of Alzheimer's disease. These tangles are aggregates of hyperphosphorylated tau protein that accumulate inside neurons, disrupting their normal functioning and eventually leading to cell death. Neurofibrillary tangles, along with beta- amyloid plaques, contribute to the progressive cognitive decline observed in Alzheimer's disease.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Atrial flutter typically presents with a regular atrial rate (usually around 250-350 beats per minute) and a characteristic "sawtooth" pattern of flutter waves (F-waves) on the ECG. This condition would not present with irregular ventricular rates and is less likely based on the ECG findings described.
B. Atrial fibrillation is identified by an irregularly irregular rhythm and the absence of P-waves on the ECG, which is replaced by erratic activity.
C. Unstable angina presents with chest pain or discomfort due to reduced blood flow to the heart muscles, usually related to atherosclerotic plaque rupture or erosion. It does not cause the ECG findings described (absence of P-waves and irregular ventricular rate).
D. PACs are early atrial depolarizations that can cause palpitations but do not typically result in the absence of P-waves or irregular ventricular rates as described in the scenario.
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