The nurse is performing an ongoing assessment on a client admitted to the post-anesthesia care unit at 1655 following abdominal surgery. The nurse documents vital signs every five minutes, as noted in the Vital Signs Record. After reviewing the vital sign trends and notifying the provider, the nurse should anticipate administering what medication?
Midazolam (Versed)
Naloxone (Narcan)
Atropine (Atropen)
Dantrolene (Dantrium)
The correct answer is B.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Midazolam (Versed): This is a benzodiazepine used for sedation. It is not typically used in the post-anesthesia care unit unless there is a need for additional sedation or anxiolysis, which is not indicated based on the scenario.
B. Naloxone (Narcan): This is the correct choice. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression. If the vital signs indicate respiratory depression or decreased oxygen saturation potentially due to opioid medications used during surgery, naloxone would be administered.
C. Atropine (Atropen): This medication is used to treat bradycardia (slow heart rate) and is not typically indicated based on vital signs trends without specific symptoms.
D. Dantrolene (Dantrium): This medication is used to treat malignant hyperthermia, a rare but serious condition often triggered by certain anesthetics. It would be indicated if there were signs of this condition, such as a high fever and muscle rigidity, which is not mentioned in the scenario.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Crush the medication and administer it through the tube: Crushing sustained-release medications can disrupt their intended release mechanism, leading to potential overdose or ineffective treatment.
B. Provide the medication orally for the client to swallow: This option is not suitable since the client has a gastrostomy tube, and oral administration is not appropriate.
C. Ask the healthcare provider to prescribe the medication as an elixir for tube administration: This is the correct approach, as an elixir form of the medication would be appropriate for administration through the gastrostomy tube without altering its release properties.
D. Dissolve the medication in water and administer it through the tube: Dissolving sustained-release tablets can compromise their intended release mechanism, which may lead to complications.
Correct Answer is ["B","D","E"]
Explanation
A. Reddish streak proximal to the insertion site: This indicates phlebitis, not infiltration.
B. Skin is pale and taut: This is a sign of infiltration as fluid accumulates in the tissue around the IV site.
C. The vein is firm and cord-like: This is indicative of phlebitis or thrombophlebitis, not infiltration.
D. IV fluid leaking from insertion site: This is a clear sign of infiltration, where fluid leaks out of the vein into surrounding tissue.
E. Warmth at the insertion site: This can be a sign of infiltration or inflammation, depending on the context.
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