The nurse is performing discharge teaching for a Type 2 diabetic client on insulin glargine. The nurse is aware that the teaching has been effective when the client states:
"I need to eat within 5-10 minutes of injecting this insulin."
"I will mix this in the same syringe with my insulin lispro at bedtime."
"I will rotate the injection site."
"I will administer this insulin in the upper anterior aspect of my arms."
Correct Answer : A,B
Choice A reason:
This statement is incorrect. Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin with a relatively steady effect and does not require eating within a specific timeframe after injection. It is designed to be injected once daily at any time of the day but at the same time every day.
Choice B reason:
This statement is incorrect. Insulin glargine should not be mixed with any other insulins in the same syringe. It is formulated to be clear and colorless, and mixing it with other insulins, especially rapid-acting insulins like lispro, can affect its action profile.
Choice C reason:
This statement is correct. Rotating the injection site is important to prevent lipodystrophy, which is the breakdown or buildup of fat beneath the skin that can occur with repeated injections at the same site. Rotating sites helps to ensure consistent insulin absorption.
Choice D reason:
This statement is correct. Insulin glargine should be administered in areas of subcutaneous fat, such as the upper arms, thighs, buttocks, or abdomen. The upper anterior aspect of the arm is an appropriate site for insulin injection.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Administering oxygen using a non-rebreather mask is a subsequent step if initial measures do not improve fetal heart rate decelerations. It can help increase the amount of oxygen available to the fetus. Oxygen administration is a supportive measure that can be used if there are signs of fetal distress. In the scenario described, where the fetal heart rate slows after the start of a contraction with the lowest rate occurring after the peak, it suggests late decelerations, which are often associated with uteroplacental insufficiency. Administering oxygen can help increase the fetal oxygen reserve and is a common intervention during labor when there are concerns about fetal well-being.
Choice B reason:
Increasing the rate of maintenance IV infusion is typically considered when there is a concern for maternal hypotension or dehydration, which may not be the immediate cause of the observed fetal heart rate pattern. Increasing the rate of an IV infusion can help improve maternal hydration and blood pressure, which in turn can enhance placental perfusion. However, this intervention is more indirect and may not provide the immediate response needed to address fetal heart rate decelerations. It is typically considered after more direct interventions, such as repositioning the mother, have been attempted.
Choice C reason:
Elevating the client's legs can help improve venous return to the heart, potentially increasing maternal cardiac output and blood flow to the placenta. While this can be beneficial, it is not the primary intervention for late decelerations. Repositioning the mother to improve uteroplacental circulation is generally the first step.
Choice D reason:
Placing the client in the lateral position is often the first action taken when late decelerations are observed. This position helps improve uteroplacental blood flow and can quickly address potential issues related to fetal oxygenation. This position helps to relieve pressure on the inferior vena cava and aorta, which can be compressed by the gravid uterus, especially in the supine position. Relieving this pressure helps to improve uteroplacental circulation and can quickly address the cause of late decelerations, which is often related to compromised blood flow to the placenta.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Magnesium sulfate is used in the management of severe preeclampsia primarily for seizure prophylaxis. One of the key side effects of magnesium sulfate is its impact on neuromuscular transmission, leading to diminished deep-tendon reflexes as serum magnesium levels rise. The therapeutic range for anticonvulsant prophylaxis is typically between 5-8 mg/dL. Reflexes may begin to diminish when serum levels reach 8-12 mg/dL, indicating potential magnesium toxicity. Therefore, diminished reflexes are a warning sign to reassess the infusion rate and possibly reduce or discontinue the medication.
Choice B reason:
A respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute falls within the normal adult range and suggests that the client's respiratory system is not being adversely affected by the magnesium sulfate infusion. Respiratory rate is a critical parameter to monitor during magnesium sulfate therapy, as respiratory depression is a serious side effect of magnesium toxicity. Maintaining a normal respiratory rate indicates that it is safe to continue the infusion at the current rate.
Choice C reason:
While a urine output of 50 mL/hr is on the lower end of the normal range, it is still considered adequate for most adults. In the setting of magnesium sulfate therapy for severe preeclampsia, maintaining adequate urine output is essential for ensuring that the kidneys can excrete the magnesium to prevent accumulation and toxicity. If urine output decreases significantly, it may necessitate reevaluation of the infusion rate or additional interventions to support renal function.
Choice D reason:
A heart rate of 56 beats per minute is slightly bradycardic but may not be clinically significant if the client is asymptomatic. However, magnesium has a direct effect on cardiac function, and high levels can lead to bradycardia and other cardiac conduction abnormalities. It is important to monitor the client's heart rate and rhythm during magnesium sulfate therapy to detect any early signs of cardiac involvement due to magnesium toxicity.
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