The nurse is performing the initial assessment of a client diagnosed with heart failure. Which question should the nurse ask to best assess the client's respiratory status?

"How many pillows do you sleep on mister"

"Do you have chest pain when you walk up the steps?"

"Do you find that your rings and shoes feel tight at the end of the day?"

"How many times do you get up to void at night?"

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A.   This question assesses the client's level of orthopnea, which is a condition where the client experiences difficulty breathing when lying flat. People with heart failure may need to use multiple pillows to prop themselves up to breathe more easily at night, making it an important question to assess respiratory status.
B.   Chest pain with exertion can be indicative of cardiovascular issues but this question does not directly assess the client's respiratory status.
C.   Tight rings and shoes can indicate fluid retention and edema, but it does not provide specific information about respiratory status.
D.   Frequent nighttime voiding (nocturia) is common in heart failure, but it relates more to kidney function and fluid retention rather than respiratory function.

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Correct Answer is ["31"]

Explanation

(Volume to be infused (mL) × Drop factor (gtt/mL)) / Time (min).

For the patient prescribed 250 mL of packed red blood cells with a drop factor of 15 gtt/mL over 120 minutes, the calculation would be (250 mL × 15 gtt/mL) / 120 min, which equals 31.25 gtt/min.

Therefore, the nurse should regulate the IV to 31 gtt/min.

A. INR = 3.7 (normal 0.9-1.1) B. Hemoglobin = 6.3g/dL (normal Female: 11.7-15.5 g/dL: Male: 14-17:3 g/dL) C. Fibrinogen = 90mg/dL (normal 200-400mg/dL) D. Platelets = 101,000 mm3 (normal 150,000-450,000 mm3)

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. INR = 3.7: The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is a measure of blood clotting. An INR greater than
3.0 indicates that the blood is not clotting properly, which can be caused by warfarin overdose. An elevated INR requires FFP to correct coagulopathy.
B. Hemoglobin = 6.3g/dL: This is low, indicating anemia, but it is not directly related to warfarin overdose. The primary issue here is coagulopathy, not anemia.
C. Fibrinogen = 90mg/dL: Fibrinogen levels may be decreased in various conditions, but this alone does not necessarily require additional FFP unless it’s below a critical threshold. Fibrinogen is not the main marker for warfarin overdose.
D. Platelets = 101,000 mm3: This platelet count is within the lower end of the normal range but does not indicate that more FFP is needed in response to warfarin overdose.

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The nurse is performing the initial assessment of a client diagnosed with heart failure. Which question should the nurse ask to best assess the client's respiratory status?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A patient is prescribed 250 mL of packed red blood cells to be transfused over 120 minutes. The drop factor on the tubing is 15 gtt/mL. At what rate should the nurse regulate the IV (gtt/min)? (round to the nearest whole number)

Correct Answer is ["31"]

Explanation

The nurse is caring for a client who received a transfusion of Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP) for an acute GI bleed related to accidental wantarin overdose. Which laboratory result would indicate the need for an additional unit of Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP) to correct the problem caused by the overdose?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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