The nurse monitoring a client receiving peritoneal dialysis notes that the client’s outflow is less than the inflow. Which actions would the nurse take? (Select all that apply)

Check the level of the drainage bag.

Reposition the client to the side.

Place the client in good body alignment.

Check the peritoneal dialysis system for kinks.

Contact the primary health care provider (PHCP).

Increase the flow rate of the peritoneal dialysis solution.

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : A,B,C,D

Choice A reason: Checking the drainage bag level ensures it’s below the abdomen to promote gravity-dependent outflow. This addresses reduced outflow in peritoneal dialysis, making it a correct action the nurse would take to resolve the inflow-outflow discrepancy safely.

Choice B reason: Repositioning to the side can dislodge catheter obstructions or improve drainage in peritoneal dialysis. This is a standard intervention for low outflow, making it a correct action the nurse would perform to correct the client’s dialysis flow issue.

Choice C reason: Good body alignment prevents catheter kinking and promotes effective drainage in peritoneal dialysis. This addresses outflow issues, making it a correct action the nurse would take to ensure proper function of the dialysis system for the client.

Choice D reason: Checking for kinks in the dialysis system identifies mechanical causes of reduced outflow. This is a key troubleshooting step, making it a correct action the nurse would perform to resolve the inflow-outflow imbalance in the client’s peritoneal dialysis.

Choice E reason: Contacting the provider is premature before troubleshooting mechanical issues like kinks or positioning. Checking the drainage bag is a priority, making this incorrect, as it delays the nurse’s initial actions to correct the dialysis outflow problem independently.

Choice F reason: Increasing the flow rate doesn’t address outflow obstruction and may worsen fluid imbalance. Repositioning is more appropriate, making this incorrect, as it’s not a safe action compared to the nurse’s focus on resolving mechanical dialysis issues first.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Dry mucosa and thirst suggest dehydration, but hypotension (88/52) is more life-threatening. Low blood pressure requires immediate assessment, making this incorrect, as it’s less urgent than the nurse’s priority to address the client with critical hemodynamic instability.

Choice B reason: A blood pressure of 88/52 mm Hg in a client on IV diuretics indicates severe hypotension, a life-threatening condition requiring immediate assessment. This aligns with prioritization in acute care, making it the correct client for the nurse to assess first post-shift report.

Choice C reason: Nausea, vomiting, and cramps are concerning but less urgent than hypotension (88/52), which risks organ perfusion. Low blood pressure is critical, making this incorrect, as it’s secondary to the nurse’s priority of assessing the client with unstable vitals.

Choice D reason: Normal saline at 150 mL/hr with adequate urine output is stable. Hypotension (88/52) is more critical, making this incorrect, as it’s a lower priority compared to the nurse’s need to assess the client with life-threatening low blood pressure first.

A. Place the client on a cardiac monitor. B. Notify the primary health care provider (PHCP). C. Put the client on NPO (nothing by mouth) status except for ice chips. D. Review the client’s medications to determine whether any contain or retain potassium. E. Allow an extra 500 mL of intravenous fluid intake to dilute the electrolyte concentration.

Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]

Explanation

Choice A reason: A potassium level of 7.0 mEq/L risks lethal arrhythmias, necessitating cardiac monitoring. This aligns with hyperkalemia management, making it a correct priority action the nurse would plan to ensure the client’s safety and detect cardiac changes promptly.

Choice B reason: Notifying the provider is critical for a potassium level of 7.0 mEq/L, as urgent interventions like insulin or dialysis may be needed. This aligns with acute care protocols, making it a correct priority action for the nurse to address hyperkalemia.

Choice C reason: NPO status with ice chips is unrelated to hyperkalemia management, which focuses on lowering potassium. Cardiac monitoring is a priority, making this incorrect, as it’s not relevant to the nurse’s urgent actions for a client with severe hyperkalemia.

Choice D reason: Reviewing medications identifies potassium-containing or retaining drugs, preventing further elevation of 7.0 mEq/L. This aligns with hyperkalemia treatment, making it a correct priority action the nurse would plan to manage the client’s electrolyte imbalance effectively.

Choice E reason: Extra IV fluids (500 mL) may dilute potassium but risk fluid overload in acute kidney injury. Notifying the provider is more urgent, making this incorrect, as it’s not a priority compared to the nurse’s focus on immediate hyperkalemia interventions.

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The nurse monitoring a client receiving peritoneal dialysis notes that the client’s outflow is less than the inflow. Which actions would the nurse take? (Select all that apply)

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

After receiving the change-of-shift report, which client does the nurse assess first?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A client with acute kidney injury has a serum potassium level of 7.0 mEq/L (7.0 mmol/L). The nurse would plan which actions as a priority? (Select all that apply)

Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]

Explanation

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