The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a group of clients who were found to be HIV positive within the last year. Members of the group express an interest in learning about the pathology of AIDS.
The nurse should explain that HIV acts in which way to suppress the immune system?
Proliferation of suppressor T-cells.
Deficiency of cytotoxic T-cells.
Increase in B-lymphocytes and IgM.
Destruction of helper T-cells and CD4 cells.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Incorrect. Suppressor T-cells (also known as regulatory T-cells) play a role in regulating the immune response, but their proliferation is not the primary mechanism by which HIV suppresses the immune system. In fact, HIV can disrupt the function of suppressor T-cells, leading to an impaired ability to control immune responses.
Choice B rationale:
Incorrect. Cytotoxic T-cells (also known as CD8+ T-cells) are important for killing infected cells, but their deficiency is not the direct cause of immune suppression in HIV. However, HIV can indirectly lead to a deficiency of cytotoxic T-cells by disrupting their production and function.
Choice C rationale:
Incorrect. B-lymphocytes produce antibodies, and IgM is an early antibody produced in response to infection. However, an increase in B-lymphocytes and IgM is not characteristic of HIV infection. In fact, HIV can impair B-cell function, leading to decreased antibody production.
Choice D rationale:
Correct. HIV primarily targets and destroys helper T-cells (also known as CD4+ T-cells). These cells play a crucial role in coordinating the immune response by activating other immune cells, such as cytotoxic T-cells and B-cells. The depletion of helper T-cells leads to a progressive weakening of the immune system, rendering the body vulnerable to opportunistic infections and cancers.
Specific mechanisms of CD4+ T-cell destruction by HIV:
Direct infection and lysis: HIV can directly infect CD4+ T-cells and replicate within them, eventually leading to the death of the infected cells.
CD4+ T-cell apoptosis: HIV can induce programmed cell death (apoptosis) in CD4+ T-cells through various mechanisms, including the activation of pro-apoptotic pathways and the disruption of anti-apoptotic signals.
Immune dysregulation: HIV infection can also dysregulate the immune system, leading to chronic inflammation and immune activation. This can further contribute to CD4+ T-cell depletion and dysfunction.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
While teaching the client about infection prevention measures is important, it is not the most immediate priority in this situation. The client is already potentially contagious, and these measures may not be sufficient to prevent transmission if the client is not properly isolated.
It's crucial to remember that the client may be experiencing cognitive impairment due to illness, making it harder to fully comprehend and adhere to instructions.
Additionally, some clients may not have access to or be able to afford masks and hand sanitizer, potentially hindering compliance with these measures.
Choice B rationale:
Isolating the client is the most critical action to prevent the spread of COVID-19 to others. This includes separating the client from other patients, family members, and healthcare workers who are not wearing proper PPE.
PPE, such as gloves, gowns, masks, and eye protection, creates a barrier between the healthcare worker and the client, minimizing the risk of transmission via direct contact or droplets.
Proper isolation techniques include placing the client in a designated negative-pressure isolation room, if available, or designating a separate area within a multi-bed room.
It's essential to restrict the client's movement within the healthcare facility and limit visitors to essential personnel only.
Choice C rationale:
Reporting the COVID-19 result to the local health department is important for tracking and managing the spread of the virus; however, it is not the most immediate priority in this situation.
The priority is to prevent further transmission by isolating the client.
Choice D rationale:
Counseling family members to monitor for symptoms is important, but it is not the most immediate priority in this situation. The priority is to prevent transmission by isolating the client.
Correct Answer is ["C","D"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
PaCO2 55 mm Hg on a blood gas indicates ineffective treatment. Normal PaCO2 levels range from 35-45 mm Hg.
Elevated PaCO2 (hypercapnia) suggests that the lungs are not effectively removing carbon dioxide from the body. This can be due to various factors, including:
Incomplete resolution of pneumonia Airway obstruction
Impaired respiratory muscle function
Choice B rationale:
Rhonchi in the right lung indicates ineffective treatment.
Rhonchi are coarse, rattling sounds heard in the lungs during auscultation.
They are often associated with mucus accumulation in the airways, which can occur in pneumonia.
The presence of rhonchi suggests that inflammation and mucus production persist, despite antibiotic and respiratory therapy.
Choice C rationale:
Oxygen saturation greater than 94% indicates effective treatment. Normal oxygen saturation levels are typically 95% or higher.
A saturation of 94% or above suggests that the lungs are able to effectively oxygenate the blood. This is a positive sign that the pneumonia is responding to treatment.
Choice D rationale:
Client ambulates without shortness of breath indicates effective treatment. Shortness of breath (dyspnea) is a common symptom of pneumonia.
It occurs when the lungs are unable to provide enough oxygen to the body, leading to a feeling of breathlessness.
The ability to ambulate without shortness of breath suggests that the pneumonia has improved and that the lungs are functioning more effectively.
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