The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a group of clients who were found to be HIV positive within the last year. Members of the group express an interest in learning about the pathology of AIDS.
The nurse should explain that HIV acts in which way to suppress the immune system?
Proliferation of suppressor T-cells.
Deficiency of cytotoxic T-cells.
Increase in B-lymphocytes and IgM.
Destruction of helper T-cells and CD4 cells.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Incorrect. Suppressor T-cells (also known as regulatory T-cells) play a role in regulating the immune response, but their proliferation is not the primary mechanism by which HIV suppresses the immune system. In fact, HIV can disrupt the function of suppressor T-cells, leading to an impaired ability to control immune responses.
Choice B rationale:
Incorrect. Cytotoxic T-cells (also known as CD8+ T-cells) are important for killing infected cells, but their deficiency is not the direct cause of immune suppression in HIV. However, HIV can indirectly lead to a deficiency of cytotoxic T-cells by disrupting their production and function.
Choice C rationale:
Incorrect. B-lymphocytes produce antibodies, and IgM is an early antibody produced in response to infection. However, an increase in B-lymphocytes and IgM is not characteristic of HIV infection. In fact, HIV can impair B-cell function, leading to decreased antibody production.
Choice D rationale:
Correct. HIV primarily targets and destroys helper T-cells (also known as CD4+ T-cells). These cells play a crucial role in coordinating the immune response by activating other immune cells, such as cytotoxic T-cells and B-cells. The depletion of helper T-cells leads to a progressive weakening of the immune system, rendering the body vulnerable to opportunistic infections and cancers.
Specific mechanisms of CD4+ T-cell destruction by HIV:
Direct infection and lysis: HIV can directly infect CD4+ T-cells and replicate within them, eventually leading to the death of the infected cells.
CD4+ T-cell apoptosis: HIV can induce programmed cell death (apoptosis) in CD4+ T-cells through various mechanisms, including the activation of pro-apoptotic pathways and the disruption of anti-apoptotic signals.
Immune dysregulation: HIV infection can also dysregulate the immune system, leading to chronic inflammation and immune activation. This can further contribute to CD4+ T-cell depletion and dysfunction.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Anorexia is a common symptom of cirrhosis, but it is not the most immediate concern in a client with esophageal varices.
Anorexia can result from various factors, including impaired liver function, hormonal imbalances, early satiety due to ascites,
and nausea.
While it's important to address anorexia to maintain nutritional status, it doesn't directly indicate a life-threatening
complication like bleeding varices.
Choice B rationale:
Brown, foamy urine is a characteristic of kidney problems, specifically proteinuria.
It's not directly associated with esophageal varices or their complications.
While cirrhosis can affect kidney function due to fluid imbalances and impaired filtering, brown, foamy urine wouldn't be the
primary indicator of bleeding varices.
Choice C rationale:
Clay-colored stool is a sign of biliary obstruction, which can occur in cirrhosis due to impaired bile flow.
However, it's not a direct indicator of bleeding varices.
Clay-colored stool results from a lack of bile pigments in the stool, which give it its typical brown color.
Choice D rationale:
Hematemesis, or vomiting of blood, is the most critical symptom to monitor in a client with esophageal varices.
Here's why:
Esophageal varices are enlarged, swollen veins in the esophagus that develop due to increased pressure in the portal venous
system, a common consequence of cirrhosis.
These varices are fragile and prone to rupture, which can lead to massive, life-threatening bleeding.
Hematemesis is a clear sign that variceal bleeding has occurred and requires immediate intervention.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Total protein is a measure of the overall protein content in the blood. It includes albumin and globulin.
While it can be helpful in assessing nutritional status and liver function, it is not directly relevant to the client's current symptoms of pallor and fatigue.
Decreased total protein can indicate malnutrition or liver disease, but these conditions would not typically cause the specific symptoms of pallor and fatigue.
Therefore, total protein is not the most important laboratory value to review in this case.
Choice B rationale:
Hemoglobin is the protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen throughout the body.
Paleness (pallor) is a common sign of anemia, which is a condition characterized by a low hemoglobin level. Fatigue is also a common symptom of anemia, as the body's tissues are not receiving enough oxygen.
Diclofenac, a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), can cause gastrointestinal bleeding, which can lead to anemia. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to review the client's hemoglobin level to assess for potential anemia.
Choice C rationale:
Glucose is a type of sugar that the body uses for energy.
Abnormal glucose levels can cause various symptoms, including fatigue. However, glucose levels would not typically cause pallor.
Additionally, there is no indication in the question stem that the client has any risk factors for diabetes or other disorders that affect glucose metabolism.
Therefore, glucose is not the most likely cause of the client's symptoms.
Choice D rationale:
Sodium is an electrolyte that helps regulate fluid balance in the body.
Abnormal sodium levels can cause various symptoms, including fatigue and weakness. However, sodium levels would not typically cause pallor.
Additionally, there is no indication in the question stem that the client has any risk factors for electrolyte imbalances. Therefore, sodium is not the most likely cause of the client's symptoms.
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