The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a group of clients who were found to be HIV positive within the last year. Members of the group express an interest in learning about the pathology of AIDS.
The nurse should explain that HIV acts in which way to suppress the immune system?
Proliferation of suppressor T-cells.
Deficiency of cytotoxic T-cells.
Increase in B-lymphocytes and IgM.
Destruction of helper T-cells and CD4 cells.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Incorrect. Suppressor T-cells (also known as regulatory T-cells) play a role in regulating the immune response, but their proliferation is not the primary mechanism by which HIV suppresses the immune system. In fact, HIV can disrupt the function of suppressor T-cells, leading to an impaired ability to control immune responses.
Choice B rationale:
Incorrect. Cytotoxic T-cells (also known as CD8+ T-cells) are important for killing infected cells, but their deficiency is not the direct cause of immune suppression in HIV. However, HIV can indirectly lead to a deficiency of cytotoxic T-cells by disrupting their production and function.
Choice C rationale:
Incorrect. B-lymphocytes produce antibodies, and IgM is an early antibody produced in response to infection. However, an increase in B-lymphocytes and IgM is not characteristic of HIV infection. In fact, HIV can impair B-cell function, leading to decreased antibody production.
Choice D rationale:
Correct. HIV primarily targets and destroys helper T-cells (also known as CD4+ T-cells). These cells play a crucial role in coordinating the immune response by activating other immune cells, such as cytotoxic T-cells and B-cells. The depletion of helper T-cells leads to a progressive weakening of the immune system, rendering the body vulnerable to opportunistic infections and cancers.
Specific mechanisms of CD4+ T-cell destruction by HIV:
Direct infection and lysis: HIV can directly infect CD4+ T-cells and replicate within them, eventually leading to the death of the infected cells.
CD4+ T-cell apoptosis: HIV can induce programmed cell death (apoptosis) in CD4+ T-cells through various mechanisms, including the activation of pro-apoptotic pathways and the disruption of anti-apoptotic signals.
Immune dysregulation: HIV infection can also dysregulate the immune system, leading to chronic inflammation and immune activation. This can further contribute to CD4+ T-cell depletion and dysfunction.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Chronic pain is a significant concern for this client, but it is not the immediate priority. Pain can be managed with medications and comfort measures, while aspiration can be life-threatening.
Tissue destruction by the tumor is likely contributing to the pain, but addressing the risk of aspiration takes precedence.
Uncontrolled pain can exacerbate anxiety and make it difficult to focus on other interventions, but ensuring airway safety is paramount.
Choice B rationale:
Anxiety and grieving are expected reactions to a diagnosis of esophageal cancer, and they should be addressed as part of the client's care plan. However, they are not the immediate priority in this case.
The progression of the disease is a significant stressor, but attending to the risk of aspiration is essential for the client's safety. Psychological distress can negatively impact coping and quality of life, but addressing physical needs takes precedence.
Choice D rationale:
Imbalanced nutrition is a concern for this client due to dysphagia and anorexia. However, it is not the immediate priority. Nutritional interventions can be implemented once the risk of aspiration is addressed.
Difficulty swallowing can lead to inadequate intake and malnutrition, but ensuring airway safety is the primary concern.
Anorexia can further contribute to nutritional deficits, but preventing aspiration is the most pressing issue.
Choice C is the priority nursing problem because:
The client's dysphagia puts them at immediate risk for aspiration, which can lead to pneumonia, respiratory failure, and even death.
Addressing the risk of aspiration is essential to ensure the client's safety and prevent life-threatening complications. It's crucial to implement interventions to minimize the risk of aspiration, such as:
Elevating the head of the bed during meals and for 30-60 minutes after eating Thickening liquids and pureeing foods
Encouraging small, frequent meals
Monitoring for signs of aspiration, such as coughing, choking, or difficulty breathing
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Maintains airway patency: Leaving the old ties in place until the new ones are secure ensures that the tracheostomy tube remains in the correct position and prevents accidental decannulation, which could obstruct the airway and lead to respiratory distress or arrest. This is the most important priority in tracheostomy care.
Prevents tube displacement: Accidental decannulation can occur during tie changes, especially in patients with copious secretions or who are restless or agitated. Keeping the old ties in place acts as a safety measure to keep the tube in position even if the new ties are not immediately secured.
Allows for adjustments: If the new ties are not tied correctly or are too tight, the old ties can be loosened or removed to make adjustments without compromising the airway.
Minimizes anxiety: Leaving the old ties in place can help to reduce anxiety in patients who are apprehensive about the tie- changing process, as it provides a sense of security and ensures that the tube will not be dislodged.
Choice B rationale:
Increases risk of skin irritation: Knots tied close to the tube can rub against the skin, causing irritation, discomfort, and potential skin breakdown, especially in patients with sensitive skin or who have copious secretions.
Impinges on blood flow: Tight knots can also constrict blood vessels, potentially impairing circulation to the skin around the tracheostomy site.
Difficult to remove in emergencies: Knots tied too close to the tube can be challenging to untie quickly in case of an emergency, such as accidental decannulation or the need to suction secretions.
Choice C rationale:
Not appropriate for all patients: Disposable, soft foam collars with self-adhesive fastening may not be suitable for patients with copious secretions, as the adhesive may not adhere well to moist skin.
May not provide adequate support: These collars may not provide the same level of support as traditional tracheostomy ties, especially in patients with active neck movement or who are at risk of accidental decannulation.
Potential for skin irritation: The adhesive on the collar can also irritate the skin around the tracheostomy site in some patients.
Choice D rationale:
May not prevent irritation: Placing knots laterally may not completely eliminate the risk of skin irritation, as the ties can still rub against the skin with neck movement or when the patient is lying down.
Could lead to accidental loosening: Knots tied laterally may be more prone to accidental loosening, especially if the patient is restless or agitated.
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