The nurse is preparing to administer an inhaled corticosteroid to a client. Which condition in the client's medical history should cause the nurse to monitor the client more closely while on this medication?
Sulfa allergy
Diabetes mellitus
Asthma
Cataracts
The Correct Answer is B
A. Sulfa allergy: Inhaled corticosteroids are not sulfonamide-based medications, so a history of sulfa allergy does not increase the risk of adverse effects. Monitoring for allergic reactions related to sulfa is not necessary.
B. Diabetes mellitus: Inhaled corticosteroids can increase blood glucose levels by promoting gluconeogenesis and reducing insulin sensitivity. Clients with diabetes are at risk for hyperglycemia, so closer monitoring of blood glucose is essential while on this medication.
C. Asthma: Asthma is an indication for inhaled corticosteroids rather than a risk factor for adverse effects. While monitoring for effectiveness is important, asthma itself does not necessitate additional safety monitoring beyond standard care.
D. Cataracts: Long-term systemic corticosteroid use is associated with an increased risk of cataracts, but inhaled corticosteroids have a much lower systemic absorption. While eye exams may be part of long-term care, immediate close monitoring is not typically required for cataracts.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Administer protamine sulfate: Protamine sulfate is the specific antidote for heparin. It binds to heparin and neutralizes its anticoagulant effect, making it the most appropriate intervention to control active bleeding due to a heparin overdose. Rapid administration is critical to prevent further blood loss.
B. Transfuse platelets: Platelet transfusion is generally indicated for thrombocytopenia or platelet dysfunction, not for anticoagulation caused by heparin. Heparin-induced bleeding is due to inhibited clotting, not platelet deficiency.
C. Transfuse packed red blood cells: Packed red blood cells may be required if the client experiences significant blood loss, but they do not address the underlying anticoagulation caused by the heparin overdose. This intervention is supportive, not corrective.
D. Administer vitamin K: Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin or vitamin K–dependent anticoagulant toxicity. It has no effect on heparin-induced anticoagulation and would not stop the bleeding in this scenario.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Client #1: A 45-year-old male with migraine, dehydration, and a history of hypertension could safely receive a calcium channel blocker if indicated for blood pressure management. No contraindications are present in his profile that would make the order unsafe.
B. Client #2: A 68-year-old with influenza and chronic stable angina may benefit from a calcium channel blocker to manage angina symptoms. There are no absolute contraindications based on his current condition or history.
C. Client #3: A 39-year-old post-spinal surgery with chronic hypertension could be prescribed a calcium channel blocker for blood pressure control. His surgical status does not contraindicate the use of this medication unless there are specific hemodynamic concerns.
D. Client #4: A 54-year-old with acute MI and a lisinopril allergy should raise concern because calcium channel blockers, particularly non-dihydropyridines (like verapamil or diltiazem), may interact with ACE inhibitors and affect cardiac function. Post-MI clients require careful selection of antihypertensive therapy.
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