The nurse is preparing to administer morning medications to a patient who has been newly diagnosed with tuberculosis. The patient asks, "Why do I have to take so many different drugs?" Which response by the nurse is correct?
Your prescriber hopes that at least one of these drugs will work to fight the tuberculosis.
Using more than one drug can help to reduce side effects.
Using multiple drugs enhances the effect of each drug.
Taking multiple drugs is recommended because more drugs are becoming resistant to TB drug therapy.
The correct answer is: c) Using multiple drugs enhances the effect of each drug.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: The purpose of multiple drugs in tuberculosis treatment is not to hope one works but to ensure comprehensive bacterial eradication. Combination therapy targets different aspects of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, preventing resistance and ensuring efficacy, as single-drug therapy is ineffective and promotes resistant strains.
Choice B reason: Multiple drugs do not primarily reduce side effects; they increase the likelihood of adverse effects due to cumulative toxicity (e.g., hepatotoxicity from isoniazid and rifampin). The rationale for combination therapy is to enhance efficacy and prevent resistance, not to mitigate side effects, making this incorrect.
Choice C reason: Combination therapy (e.g., isoniazid, rifampin, ethambutol, pyrazinamide) enhances efficacy by targeting different bacterial populations and metabolic states of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. This synergistic approach ensures rapid bacterial killing, prevents resistance, and shortens treatment duration, making it the standard for effective tuberculosis management.
Choice D reason: The use of multiple drugs is not because drugs are becoming resistant but to prevent resistance development. Combination therapy overwhelms Mycobacterium tuberculosis with multiple mechanisms, reducing the chance of resistant mutants surviving. Resistance occurs with inadequate or monotherapy, not as a rationale for combination therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Blurred vision and headaches are not common side effects of niacin. Niacin lowers lipids by inhibiting hepatic VLDL production but primarily causes cutaneous effects like flushing due to prostaglandin release. Neurological symptoms are more associated with other drugs, not niacin’s lipid-lowering mechanism.
Choice B reason: Myalgia and fatigue are not typical niacin side effects. These are more associated with statins, which affect muscle tissue. Niacin’s primary adverse effects involve skin (flushing, pruritus) and gastrointestinal upset, driven by its vasodilatory and metabolic effects, not musculoskeletal symptoms.
Choice C reason: Tinnitus and urine with a burnt odor are not recognized niacin side effects. Niacin causes prostaglandin-mediated flushing and potential hepatotoxicity but does not affect auditory function or urine odor. These symptoms are unrelated to niacin’s mechanism of reducing lipid synthesis.
Choice D reason: Pruritus and cutaneous flushing are common niacin side effects. Niacin triggers prostaglandin release, causing vasodilation, leading to flushing and itching. These effects are dose-dependent and often transient, manageable with aspirin pretreatment or gradual dose escalation, making this the correct adverse effect to monitor.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Garlic can enhance warfarin’s anticoagulant effect by inhibiting platelet aggregation and potentially increasing INR, raising bleeding risk. Its sulfur compounds may also induce hepatic enzymes, affecting warfarin metabolism. Patients on warfarin should avoid high garlic intake to maintain stable anticoagulation and prevent hemorrhage.
Choice B reason: Acetaminophen has no significant interaction with garlic. Acetaminophen is metabolized by the liver, primarily via glucuronidation, and garlic’s effects on platelet function or enzymes do not notably affect its pharmacokinetics or analgesic efficacy, making this an unlikely interaction concern.
Choice C reason: Phenytoin, an anticonvulsant, is metabolized by hepatic CYP450 enzymes, but garlic’s weak enzyme induction does not significantly alter phenytoin levels. Garlic’s primary interaction is with anticoagulants like warfarin, not anticonvulsants, making this drug less relevant for garlic-related concerns.
Choice D reason: Digoxin has no major interaction with garlic. Digoxin’s pharmacokinetics are primarily renal, and garlic’s effects on platelets or minor enzyme induction do not significantly alter digoxin levels or cardiac effects. Warfarin’s bleeding risk is more impacted by garlic’s antiplatelet properties.
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