The nurse is preparing to perform a nutritional assessment of a newly admitted client. What question would be most appropriate for the nurse to ask when initiating the assessment?
"Are there any foods that you cannot eat?"
"What have you eaten in the last 24 hours?"
"Are any members of your family obese?"
"How many meals do you eat each day?"
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Food restrictions identify allergies or preferences, but not intake patterns. This limits nutritional status insight, missing recent consumption data critical for assessing current health, making it less foundational for this initial evaluation fully here.
Choice B reason: A 24-hour recall details recent intake, offering a snapshot of diet quality and quantity. This directly informs nutritional status, habits, and deficits, making it the most appropriate starting question for a comprehensive assessment accurately here.
Choice C reason: Family obesity history suggests genetic risk, not the client’s nutrition. This indirect data lacks specificity on current intake, rendering it less useful than a direct dietary recall for this nutritional assessment entirely and fully here.
Choice D reason: Meal frequency provides structure, not content or quality. It’s less informative than a 24-hour recall, which captures specifics of what’s eaten, making it secondary for initiating a detailed nutritional evaluation comprehensively here fully.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Human papillomavirus (HPV), especially types 16 and 18, is the primary cervical cancer risk, causing 99% of cases. This STI triggers oncogenic changes in cervical cells, making it the key factor for this class accurately and fully here.
Choice B reason: HIV weakens immunity, raising HPV persistence risk, but isn’t a direct cervical cancer cause. Its role is secondary, amplifying HPV effects, not independently driving carcinogenesis, excluding it as the major factor comprehensively here entirely.
Choice C reason: Syphilis, a bacterial STI, causes sores, not cervical cancer. It lacks the viral oncogenic mechanism of HPV, rendering it irrelevant as a primary risk factor for this malignancy in the educational context fully here.
Choice D reason: Gonorrhea causes inflammation, not cancer. This bacterial STI doesn’t alter cervical DNA like HPV, making it an incorrect choice for a major risk factor in cervical cancer education for these students entirely here fully.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Graphesthesia tests parietal lobe sensory processing, not cerebellar function. The cerebellum coordinates movement, not cortical interpretation, making this irrelevant to assessing ataxia or balance issues expected in a cerebellar-focused exam entirely here fully.
Choice B reason: Stereognosis assesses parietal tactile recognition, not cerebellar motor control. This sensory test misses the cerebellum’s role in coordination and balance, excluding it as a priority for evaluating cerebellar dysfunction in this assessment comprehensively.
Choice C reason: Vibration tests posterior column sensation, not cerebellar function. While neurological, it targets spinal pathways, not the cerebellum’s coordination role, rendering it secondary to movement-based tests for cerebellar evaluation in this context fully here.
Choice D reason: Gait and balance directly assess cerebellar function, critical for coordination. Ataxia or wide-based gait from cerebellar damage makes this the priority test, aligning with the preceptor’s focus on cerebellar performance accurately and effectively here.
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