The nurse is reviewing a client’s laboratory results and notes the serum potassium level is 2.8 mEq/L. Which nursing action should be initiated immediately?

Institute hourly neurologic checks.

Initiate cardiac monitoring.

Initiate seizure precautions.

Administer oxygen via face mask.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale:
Hourly neurologic checks are not the priority intervention for a client with hypokalemia. While hypokalemia can cause neuromuscular changes, such as muscle weakness and cramps, these are not typically the most immediate or life-threatening concerns.
Cardiac monitoring is crucial to detect and manage potentially fatal arrhythmias promptly.

Neurologic checks can be implemented as part of the overall assessment and monitoring plan, but they should not supersede cardiac monitoring in this situation.
Choice C rationale:
Seizure precautions are not routinely initiated for clients with hypokalemia unless there is a specific seizure history or other neurological concerns.
Hypokalemia can cause neuromuscular irritability, but it does not directly trigger seizures in most cases. The priority remains cardiac monitoring due to the significant risk of arrhythmias.
Choice D rationale:
Administering oxygen via face mask might be considered if the client exhibits respiratory distress or hypoxemia. However, it's not the immediate priority intervention for hypokalemia without accompanying respiratory compromise.
Hypokalemia primarily affects cardiac conduction, necessitating prompt cardiac monitoring.
Oxygen therapy can be administered if clinically indicated, but it does not address the underlying electrolyte imbalance.
Rationale for the correct answer, B:
Initiating cardiac monitoring is the most crucial nursing action for a client with a serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L. Here's a detailed explanation:
Hypokalemia's significant cardiac effects:
Potassium is essential for normal cardiac conduction and muscle contraction. Hypokalemia disrupts the electrical activity of the heart, potentially leading to:
Arrhythmias (irregular heartbeats), including potentially fatal ones like ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation. Electrocardiogram (ECG) changes, such as ST segment depression, T wave flattening or inversion, and prominent U waves. Cardiac monitoring's role:
Continuously tracks the heart's electrical activity. Enables early detection of arrhythmias.
Facilitates prompt intervention to prevent life-threatening complications. Specific benefits of cardiac monitoring in hypokalemia:

Allows for early identification and treatment of arrhythmias, potentially preventing cardiac arrest. Guides electrolyte replacement therapy, ensuring appropriate potassium administration.
Assesses the effectiveness of interventions, ensuring the patient's stability.

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Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E"]

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
Prednisone:
Corticosteroid that suppresses the immune system: It's crucial to consult with the primary healthcare provider (PCP) because prednisone can impair wound healing and increase the risk of infection after surgery. The PCP may need to adjust the dosage or temporarily discontinue prednisone prior to surgery.
Potential for adrenal insufficiency: Abrupt cessation of prednisone can lead to adrenal insufficiency, a life-threatening condition. The PCP will provide guidance on how to taper the medication safely before surgery.
Interaction with anesthesia: Prednisone can interact with certain anesthetic agents, potentially increasing the risk of complications. The PCP and anesthesiologist will need to coordinate care to ensure safe medication management during surgery.
Choice B rationale:
Metoprolol:
Beta-blocker that lowers blood pressure and heart rate: While metoprolol is generally safe to continue before surgery, it's still essential to inform the PCP and anesthesiologist about its use. They will monitor heart rate and blood pressure closely during and after surgery, as metoprolol can interact with certain medications used during the procedure.
Choice C rationale:
Warfarin:
Blood thinner that prevents blood clots: Warfarin requires careful management around surgery due to its significant bleeding risk. The PCP will typically recommend holding warfarin for several days before surgery to allow for normalization of blood clotting. They may also bridge with a shorter-acting anticoagulant if necessary.
Potential for bleeding complications: If warfarin is not managed appropriately, it can lead to excessive bleeding during or after surgery. The PCP will closely monitor the patient's INR (international normalized ratio), a measure of blood clotting, to ensure it's within the safe range for surgery.
Choice D rationale:
Insulin:
Hormone that regulates blood sugar: Patients with diabetes who take insulin require careful blood sugar control around surgery to prevent complications. The PCP will provide specific instructions on how to adjust insulin doses before, during, and after surgery, as insulin needs often change due to the stress of surgery and the impact of anesthesia.
Risk of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia: Both low blood sugar (hypoglycemia) and high blood sugar (hyperglycemia) can have serious consequences during and after surgery. The PCP will work with the patient to manage blood sugar levels and prevent these complications.
Choice E rationale:
Phenytoin:
Anticonvulsant medication that controls seizures: Phenytoin has a narrow therapeutic window, meaning that blood levels must be closely monitored to ensure efficacy and prevent toxicity. Surgery can affect phenytoin levels, so the PCP will likely recommend checking a blood level before surgery and adjusting the dose as needed.
Potential for drug interactions: Phenytoin interacts with many medications, including some commonly used during surgery. The PCP will need to review the patient's medication list carefully and make any necessary adjustments to prevent interactions.
Choice F rationale:
Omega-3 fatty acid:
Generally safe to continue before surgery: Omega-3 fatty acids are not known to have significant interactions with medications used during surgery or to pose risks for wound healing or bleeding. However, it's always best to inform the PCP about any supplements being taken.

A. Advancing age B. Exposure to tobacco C. Exposure to occupational chemicals D. Infection with an oncovirus.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
While advancing age is a significant risk factor for cancer, it is not considered the single biggest risk factor. The risk of developing cancer does increase with age, primarily due to the accumulation of DNA damage over time. This damage can arise from various sources, including exposure to carcinogens, errors in DNA replication, and oxidative stress. With age, the body's ability to repair DNA damage also declines, making cells more susceptible to cancerous changes.
However, it's important to note that cancer can develop at any age, and even younger individuals can be affected if exposed to other significant risk factors.
Choice B rationale:
Exposure to tobacco is widely recognized as the single biggest risk factor for developing cancer. It is estimated to be responsible for about 25-30% of all cancer deaths worldwide.
Tobacco smoke contains over 70 known carcinogens, which are substances that can damage DNA and lead to cancer. These carcinogens can affect various organs in the body, including the lungs, mouth, throat, esophagus, stomach, pancreas, liver, bladder, kidney, cervix, and colon.
The risk of cancer increases with the amount and duration of tobacco use. Even exposure to secondhand smoke can increase the risk of cancer.
Quitting tobacco use is the most effective way to reduce the risk of cancer.
Choice C rationale:
Exposure to occupational chemicals is a known risk factor for certain types of cancer, such as lung cancer, bladder cancer, and leukemia. However, it is not considered the single biggest risk factor for developing cancer overall.
The risk of cancer from occupational chemicals depends on the specific chemical, the level of exposure, and the duration of exposure.
Workplace safety measures, such as using protective equipment and limiting exposure to hazardous chemicals, can help reduce the risk of cancer.
Choice D rationale:
Infection with certain viruses, known as oncoviruses, can increase the risk of developing certain types of cancer. For example, infection with human papillomavirus (HPV) can increase the risk of cervical cancer, and infection with hepatitis B virus (HBV) can increase the risk of liver cancer.
However, oncoviruses are not considered the single biggest risk factor for developing cancer overall. Vaccines are available to protect against some oncoviruses, such as HPV and HBV.

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The nurse is reviewing a client’s laboratory results and notes the serum potassium level is 2.8 mEq/L. Which nursing action should be initiated immediately?

Nursing Test Bank

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