The nurse is reviewing lab results for a patient and the white blood cell (WBC) count is elevated at 12,000. Which of the following is a cause of increasing WBC count? (Select all that apply)
Trauma
Hyperglycemia
Infection
Inflammation
Steroid Injection
Correct Answer : A,C,D
A. Trauma can cause an elevated WBC count as part of the body’s response to injury. The immune system reacts to tissue damage by increasing WBC production to facilitate healing and fight potential infections.
B. Hyperglycemia itself does not directly cause an elevated WBC count. However, it may be associated with conditions like diabetes, where infections are more common. Therefore, while hyperglycemia can occur concurrently with elevated WBC counts, it is not a direct cause of the increase.
C. Infection is one of the most common causes of an elevated WBC count. The body responds to infections (bacterial, viral, etc.) by increasing WBC production to help combat the invading pathogens.
D. Inflammation, whether due to autoimmune conditions, allergies, or other causes, can also lead to an increase in WBC count. The inflammatory process triggers the immune response, resulting in elevated levels of white blood cells.
E. While steroid injections can influence WBC counts, they often cause a redistribution of white blood cells rather than an increase in production. Corticosteroids can cause a decrease in certain types of white blood cells (like lymphocytes) but may increase neutrophils due to a release from the bone marrow.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Methotrexate (MTX) is a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) that helps slow disease progression but does not provide immediate pain relief. NSAIDs and steroids may be used for symptomatic relief, but MTX alone can manage both pain and disease progression over time.
B. This response is unprofessional and dismissive. It implies that the medication regimen is based solely on the patient's insurance coverage rather than their medical needs. It does not address the patient’s question and could undermine trust in the healthcare team.
C. Methotrexate does not primarily treat nausea; rather, it is used to manage rheumatoid arthritis. While some patients may experience nausea as a side effect of MTX or other medications, this is not its primary purpose.
D. Methotrexate is indeed a DMARD that can take weeks to months to show its full benefits in controlling inflammation and slowing disease progression. Meanwhile, NSAIDs or corticosteroids may be prescribed to provide quicker relief from symptoms such as pain and swelling.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Neutropenia refers to an abnormally low level of neutrophils in the blood. This condition can result from various factors, including severe infections, bone marrow issues, or certain medications. However, in the context of a severe bacterial infection, you would expect an increase in neutrophils, not a decrease.
B. Anemia is a condition characterized by a lack of healthy red blood cells to carry adequate oxygen to the body’s tissues. While infections can lead to anemia, it is not a direct indicator of white blood cell production or response to a bacterial infection.
C. Leukopenia refers to a decrease in the overall white blood cell count. Like neutropenia, it indicates a reduced ability to fight infection, which is not consistent with a severe bacterial infection where the body is actively trying to produce more white blood cells.
D. A "left shift" indicates the presence of increased immature neutrophils (such as band cells) in the blood, which occurs when the bone marrow releases these cells into circulation in response to a severe infection. This reflects the body’s effort to combat an infection, typically seen in bacterial infections.
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