Which of the following are common signs or symptoms of GI bleeding? (Select all that apply)

Hematochezia

Hypertension

Tarry stool

Coffee-ground emesis

Hematemesis

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : A,C,D,E

A.   This term refers to the passage of fresh blood through the anus, usually indicating lower GI bleeding (such as from the colon or rectum). It is a common and significant sign of GI bleeding.
B.   Hypertension (high blood pressure) is generally not a sign of GI bleeding. In fact, GI bleeding typically leads to hypotension (low blood pressure) due to volume loss, making this choice incorrect.
C.   Tarry stool (melena) indicates the presence of digested blood in the stool, typically resulting from upper GI bleeding. It appears black and sticky and is a common sign of GI bleeding.
D.   This refers to vomiting that looks like coffee grounds, which indicates that blood has been present in the stomach and has undergone digestion. This is a classic sign of upper GI bleeding and is a significant symptom.
E.   Hematemesis is the vomiting of blood, which can be bright red or resemble coffee grounds, depending on the source and severity of the bleeding. It is a common and serious sign of GI bleeding, particularly from the upper GI tract.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Morphine is a strong opioid analgesic that is effective for managing severe pain, especially in acute situations like a vaso-occlusive crisis. Administering it intravenously allows for rapid onset of pain relief, which is critical given the severity of the patient’s symptoms. Continuous dosing (ATC—around the clock) ensures that pain is managed effectively.
B. Fentanyl patches are typically used for chronic pain management and take time to reach effective levels in the bloodstream (up to 12 hours or longer). In the case of acute severe pain from a vaso- occlusive crisis, this option would not provide immediate relief.
C. While ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can help relieve mild to moderate pain, it is not adequate for severe pain management. Additionally, in the setting of sickle cell disease, patients may be at risk for renal issues, making high doses of NSAIDs potentially harmful.
D. Hydromorphone is also a strong opioid analgesic; however, administering it orally may not be effective for severe pain management in an acute situation. IV administration of opioids is preferred for immediate and potent pain relief during a vaso-occlusive crisis.

A. "I will rinse raw fruits with water before eating them" B. “I will wear gloves while changing the kitty litter box" C. "I will wear a N95 mask when around sick family members" D. “I will cook vegetables before eating them"

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. While rinsing fruits is good practice, it may not fully eliminate the risk of pathogens, especially for someone with a compromised immune system.
B. This statement is the best indication of understanding how to prevent infections. Changing kitty litter can expose the client to Toxoplasma gondii, which is particularly risky for immunocompromised individuals. Wearing gloves is a direct and effective precaution.
C. Although wearing an N95 mask can be appropriate in certain situations, it may not be necessary for all interactions with sick family members. A standard surgical mask is often sufficient.
D. Cooking vegetables is a good practice for food safety, especially for immunocompromised individuals, but this statement is more general than specifically addressing a particular risk.

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Which of the following are common signs or symptoms of GI bleeding? (Select all that apply)

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A patient who has sickle cell disease was admitted with a vaso-occlusive crisis and reports severe abdominal and flank pain. Which of the following analgesic medications will be MOST appropriate to administer to the patient?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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