The nurse is reviewing the client's prescriptions.
The nurse is administering medications to the client and is monitoring potential adverse effects of medications
For each body system below, click to specify the assessment findings that could indicate a serious adverse reaction. Each body system may support more than 1 potential assessment finding. To deselect a finding click on the finding again.
|
Body system |
Findings |
|
Head, Eyes, Ears, Nose, and Throat (HEENT) |
Yellowing of the eyes Blurred vision Dry eyes |
|
Gastrointestinal |
Abdominal pain Weight gain |
|
Hematologic |
Increased bruising Increased bleeding tendency Insomnia |
|
Genitourinary |
Darkening of the urine Urinary frequency |
Yellowing of the eyes
Blurred vision
Dry eyes
Abdominal pain
Weight gain
Increased bruising
Increased bleeding tendency
Insomnia
Darkening of the urine
Urinary frequency
The Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","F","G","I"]
Rationale for Correct Options:
- Yellowing of the eyes: Indicates hepatotoxicity, a serious adverse effect of isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. These drugs can cause liver damage, leading to jaundice, which presents as yellowing of the eyes and skin. Liver function tests should be monitored closely.
- Blurred vision: Can result from optic neuritis, a known adverse effect of ethambutol. Ethambutol can damage the optic nerve, causing visual disturbances, including decreased visual acuity and color blindness. Patients should undergo routine eye exams.
- Abdominal pain: May indicate hepatotoxicity from TB medications, particularly isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. Liver inflammation or damage can manifest as right upper quadrant pain, nausea, and loss of appetite. Monitoring liver enzymes is essential.
- Increased bruising: Can result from thrombocytopenia, a hematologic side effect of rifampin. Rifampin can suppress bone marrow function, leading to reduced platelet production, increasing the risk of spontaneous bruising and prolonged bleeding.
- Increased bleeding tendency: Suggests liver dysfunction, as the liver is responsible for producing clotting factors. Rifampin-induced hepatotoxicity can impair clotting mechanisms, increasing the risk of excessive bleeding from minor injuries.
- Darkening of the urine: A common but harmless side effect of rifampin. Rifampin is excreted in bodily fluids, causing orange or red discoloration of urine, sweat, and tears. Patients should be educated on this expected effect to prevent unnecessary concern.
Rationale for Incorrect Options:
- Dry eyes: Not associated with TB medications and may be due to environmental factors or dehydration.
- Weight gain: Unlikely with TB treatment, as these medications typically cause weight loss rather than weight gain.
- Insomnia: Not a significant adverse effect of first-line TB drugs and may be related to the client’s illness or other factors.
- Urinary frequency: Not a common reaction to TB medications, as these drugs do not significantly affect renal function or bladder activity.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Place a pillow under the client's head. Placing a pillow under the client's head is appropriate as it helps protect the client's head from injury during the seizure. Providing cushioning can reduce the risk of head trauma, which is a common concern during seizures.
B. Gently restrain the client's arms. Gently restraining the client's arms is not recommended during a seizure, as it can lead to injury. Restraining movements can also increase the risk of injury to both the client and the caregiver. Instead, the nurse should allow the seizure to progress without interference.
C. Administer a muscle relaxant. Administering a muscle relaxant is not appropriate during a seizure. The nurse should not medicate the client until the seizure has stopped and the healthcare provider has assessed the situation. Immediate management focuses on safety rather than medication.
D. Insert a tongue blade. Inserting a tongue blade or any object into the client's mouth is dangerous and not recommended. This can cause oral injury, broken teeth, or airway obstruction. The nurse should ensure the area is clear of hazards and allow the seizure to occur without attempting to prevent movements.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"B"}
Explanation
- Rheumatoid arthritis is the most likely condition given the client’s bilateral wrist and shoulder stiffness lasting for several hours in the morning, fatigue, and loss of appetite. The elevated ESR and anemia further support chronic inflammation. Positive ANA, while not specific, can be present in RA and other autoimmune disorders.
- Osteoarthritis is incorrect because it typically presents with stiffness that improves within 30 minutes of activity, not lasting for several hours. It is also a non-inflammatory condition, whereas the client has elevated ESR and anemia, suggesting an inflammatory process.
- Gout is unlikely as it usually causes acute, severe joint pain with redness and swelling, often affecting the big toe. The client’s uric acid level is within normal range, making gout less probable.
- Carpal tunnel syndrome primarily causes numbness, tingling, and weakness in the hands due to median nerve compression. It does not typically cause prolonged morning stiffness, fatigue, or systemic inflammation.
- Positive ANA is not the best choice because while it is seen in rheumatoid arthritis, it is also present in other autoimmune diseases such as lupus. It does not specifically confirm RA.
- Normal WBC count does not support an inflammatory condition, as RA can lead to mild leukopenia, which is seen in the follow-up labs.
- Low blood pressure is not a defining feature of RA and does not correlate with the client’s symptoms or disease progression
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