The nurse is reviewing the lab results of a patient who takes warfarin to prevent deep vein thrombosis. Which laboratory result requires follow up by the nurse?
The partial thromboplastin time is 30 seconds
The International normalized ratio is 6.0
Creatinine is 12
The patient's hematocrit level is 43%
The Correct Answer is B
A. The partial thromboplastin time is 30 seconds:
The partial thromboplastin time (PTT) measures the clotting time of blood and is typically used to monitor patients on heparin therapy, not warfarin. A PTT of 30 seconds is within the normal range and does not directly relate to warfarin therapy. Therefore, it does not require immediate follow-up in the context of warfarin administration.
B. The International normalized ratio is 6.0:
The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is a standard measure used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. For most indications, the therapeutic range for INR is typically between 2.0 and 3.0. A value of 6.0 indicates that the patient's blood is taking six times longer to clot than normal, suggesting a significantly increased risk of bleeding. Therefore, this result requires immediate follow-up by the nurse to assess the patient's condition and potentially adjust warfarin dosage to reduce the risk of bleeding.
C. Creatinine is 12:
Creatinine is a waste product generated by muscle metabolism and is filtered out of the blood by the kidneys. Elevated levels of creatinine may indicate impaired kidney function, but this result does not directly relate to warfarin therapy. While an elevated creatinine level may require follow-up for other reasons, it does not necessitate immediate action related to warfarin therapy.
D. The patient's hematocrit level is 43%:
Hematocrit is a measure of the proportion of red blood cells in the blood. A hematocrit level of 43% is within the normal range for both men and women and does not directly relate to warfarin therapy. While changes in hematocrit may occur in some patients taking warfarin, this result alone does not require immediate follow-up in the context of warfarin administration.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Perform doppler evaluation once daily: While Doppler evaluation is valuable for assessing blood flow and detecting vascular abnormalities, performing it only once daily may not provide adequate monitoring, especially during the critical early postoperative period. More frequent assessments are necessary to ensure optimal graft function and to promptly identify any complications.
B. Assess for compartment syndrome every 2 hours: While assessing for compartment syndrome is important, performing assessments every 2 hours may not be necessary unless specific risk factors or clinical indications are present. Continuous monitoring for signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome is essential, but the frequency of assessment should be based on the patient's condition and the surgeon's orders.
C. Assess pulse of affected extremity every 15 minutes until stable: After popliteal bypass graft surgery, assessing the pulse of the affected extremity every 15 minutes until stable is crucial. Frequent pulse checks help monitor graft patency and perfusion to detect early signs of graft failure or ischemia. This high-frequency assessment allows for prompt identification of vascular compromise and timely intervention to prevent graft thrombosis or occlusion. Once the pulse is stable and adequate perfusion is confirmed, the frequency of pulse checks can be adjusted according to the patient's condition and clinical guidelines.
D. Palpate the affected leg for pain every shift: Palpating the affected leg for pain every shift is an important component of postoperative assessment. However, relying solely on pain assessment once per shift may not provide timely detection of complications or changes in the patient's condition, especially during the immediate postoperative period when close monitoring is necessary. Frequent and ongoing assessment of pain, along with other vital signs and clinical indicators, is essential for comprehensive postoperative care.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Sedentary lifestyle: While a sedentary lifestyle can contribute to the development and progression of peripheral arterial disease (PAD), it is not the highest risk factor compared to other options listed. Regular physical activity is important for cardiovascular health and can help reduce the risk of PAD, but other risk factors may have a greater impact on disease development.
B. Diabetes: Diabetes is a significant risk factor for PAD, especially when poorly controlled. High blood sugar levels can damage blood vessels and nerves, leading to atherosclerosis and reduced blood flow to the limbs. However, compared to cigarette smoking, diabetes may not be considered the highest risk factor for PAD.
C. Cigarette smoking: Cigarette smoking is the highest risk factor for peripheral arterial disease (PAD). Tobacco smoke contains numerous harmful chemicals that damage blood vessels and promote atherosclerosis, narrowing the arteries and reducing blood flow to the limbs. Smoking not only increases the risk of developing PAD but also accelerates its progression and worsens symptoms. Quitting smoking is one of the most important interventions for preventing and managing PAD.
D. Hyperlipidemia: Elevated levels of cholesterol and triglycerides (hyperlipidemia) contribute to the development of atherosclerosis, which is a key mechanism underlying peripheral arterial disease (PAD). However, while hyperlipidemia is a significant risk factor, it may not be considered the highest risk factor compared to cigarette smoking. Controlling cholesterol levels through lifestyle changes and medications is essential for managing PAD and reducing cardiovascular risk.
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