The nurse is reviewing the lab results of a patient who takes warfarin to prevent deep vein thrombosis. Which laboratory result requires follow up by the nurse?
The partial thromboplastin time is 30 seconds
The International normalized ratio is 6.0
Creatinine is 12
The patient's hematocrit level is 43%
The Correct Answer is B
A. The partial thromboplastin time is 30 seconds:
The partial thromboplastin time (PTT) measures the clotting time of blood and is typically used to monitor patients on heparin therapy, not warfarin. A PTT of 30 seconds is within the normal range and does not directly relate to warfarin therapy. Therefore, it does not require immediate follow-up in the context of warfarin administration.
B. The International normalized ratio is 6.0:
The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is a standard measure used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. For most indications, the therapeutic range for INR is typically between 2.0 and 3.0. A value of 6.0 indicates that the patient's blood is taking six times longer to clot than normal, suggesting a significantly increased risk of bleeding. Therefore, this result requires immediate follow-up by the nurse to assess the patient's condition and potentially adjust warfarin dosage to reduce the risk of bleeding.
C. Creatinine is 12:
Creatinine is a waste product generated by muscle metabolism and is filtered out of the blood by the kidneys. Elevated levels of creatinine may indicate impaired kidney function, but this result does not directly relate to warfarin therapy. While an elevated creatinine level may require follow-up for other reasons, it does not necessitate immediate action related to warfarin therapy.
D. The patient's hematocrit level is 43%:
Hematocrit is a measure of the proportion of red blood cells in the blood. A hematocrit level of 43% is within the normal range for both men and women and does not directly relate to warfarin therapy. While changes in hematocrit may occur in some patients taking warfarin, this result alone does not require immediate follow-up in the context of warfarin administration.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Chest pain that radiates to the jaw:
This finding suggests myocardial ischemia, as chest pain (angina) that radiates to the jaw is a classic symptom of cardiac origin. It is known as referred pain and occurs because the nerves that innervate the heart and jaw have a similar sensory pathway. The pain may be described as pressure, squeezing, or tightness in the chest, and it often spreads to the neck, shoulders, arms, or jaw. This pattern of pain radiation is typical in myocardial ischemia or heart attack due to inadequate blood supply to the heart muscle.
B. Sudden and severe abdominal pain:
While abdominal pain can be associated with various conditions, sudden and severe abdominal pain is not a typical symptom of myocardial ischemia. Instead, it may indicate other abdominal issues such as gastrointestinal problems, pancreatitis, or intra-abdominal vascular events. Myocardial ischemia typically presents with chest pain or discomfort, rather than abdominal pain.
C. Blurred vision:
Blurred vision is not a typical symptom of myocardial ischemia. It may suggest ocular issues such as refractive errors, dry eyes, or conditions affecting the retina or optic nerve. Myocardial ischemia primarily manifests with symptoms related to the heart, such as chest pain, shortness of breath, or other signs of cardiovascular compromise.
D. Dry cough:
A dry cough is not a typical symptom of myocardial ischemia. It may be associated with various respiratory conditions such as allergies, asthma, or respiratory infections. Myocardial ischemia primarily presents with symptoms related to the heart and cardiovascular system, such as chest pain, palpitations, or dyspnea.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Human Immunodeficiency virus encephalopathy:
Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) encephalopathy, also known as HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND), is a common neurological complication of HIV/AIDS. It occurs due to the direct effects of HIV on the central nervous system (CNS), leading to cognitive impairment, behavioral changes, and motor dysfunction. The progressive decline in cognitive, behavioral, and motor functions described in the patient is characteristic of HIV encephalopathy. Therefore, this choice is the most likely explanation for the patient's symptoms.
B. Beta-cell lymphoma:
Beta-cell lymphoma, also known as primary central nervous system lymphoma (PCNSL), is a rare but serious complication of HIV/AIDS. It involves the development of malignant lymphomas within the CNS. While PCNSL can cause neurological symptoms, such as cognitive decline and motor dysfunction, it typically presents with focal neurological deficits and signs of increased intracranial pressure, which are not mentioned in the scenario. Therefore, beta-cell lymphoma is less likely to be the cause of the patient's symptoms compared to HIV encephalopathy.
C. Kaposi sarcoma:
Kaposi sarcoma is a type of cancer caused by human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8) infection, which commonly affects individuals with HIV/AIDS. While Kaposi sarcoma can involve the CNS and potentially lead to neurological symptoms, such as headaches and focal neurological deficits, the progressive decline in cognitive, behavioral, and motor functions described in the scenario is not typically associated with Kaposi sarcoma. Therefore, this choice is less likely to explain the patient's symptoms compared to HIV encephalopathy.
D. Wasting syndrome:
Wasting syndrome, also known as cachexia, is a syndrome characterized by unintentional weight loss, weakness, and muscle atrophy. While wasting syndrome is a common complication of advanced HIV/AIDS, it primarily affects body composition and nutritional status rather than causing progressive decline in cognitive, behavioral, and motor functions. Therefore, wasting syndrome is less likely to be the cause of the patient's symptoms compared to HIV encephalopathy.
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