The nurse is testing for motor functioning by having the client lie down and slide the heel of the right foot down the left shin and then slide the heel of the left foot down the right shin. Which response by the patient would indicate that there may be cerebellar dysfunction?
Rapid oscillations of the ankle
Deviation of the heel to one side
Pain and flexion in the knee
The client reports paresthesia
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Rapid ankle oscillations might suggest tremor, possibly basal ganglia issues, not cerebellar dysfunction. The heel-shin test assesses coordination, where cerebellar damage causes drift, not rhythmic shaking, making this less indicative of the target pathology here.
Choice B reason: Heel deviation to one side in the heel-shin test signals cerebellar dysfunction, impairing coordination. The cerebellum fine-tunes movement; damage causes ataxia, leading to inaccurate sliding, making this the key sign of cerebellar issues accurately.
Choice C reason: Pain and knee flexion suggest joint or nerve issues, not cerebellar dysfunction. This test evaluates smooth motion, not pain response; cerebellar problems show ataxia, not discomfort, disconnecting this from the intended motor assessment fully.
Choice D reason: Paresthesia (tingling) indicates sensory nerve issues, not cerebellar motor control. The cerebellum coordinates movement, not sensation; this response misses the coordination focus of the heel-shin test, excluding it as a cerebellar sign here entirely.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Paraphimosis involves foreskin retraction, not meatal position, and isn’t prostate-related. Dorsal urethral meatus points to a congenital defect, not this acquired condition, making it an incorrect concern for this genitourinary finding entirely here fully.
Choice B reason: Epispadias is a congenital dorsal urethral opening, a key concern in males. This abnormal positioning may cause urinary issues or infertility, making it the most significant finding requiring attention in this assessment accurately and comprehensively here.
Choice C reason: Urethral stricture narrows the urethra, not shifting its position dorsally. This acquired issue isn’t bladder-specific, misaligning with the congenital anomaly observed, excluding it as the primary concern in this genitourinary exam fully here.
Choice D reason: Age doesn’t reposition the urethral meatus dorsally; this is congenital, not degenerative. Normal aging affects prostate size, not meatal anatomy, rendering this less critical than epispadias as the identified issue in this case entirely here.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Ischemic stroke causes focal deficits like weakness, not neck flexion-induced leg pain. This vascular event lacks meningeal irritation signs, misaligning with the positive Brudzinski’s sign of knee bending and neck pain in this assessment fully here.
Choice B reason: Trigeminal neuralgia triggers facial pain, not leg or neck pain with flexion. This cranial nerve V issue doesn’t involve meningeal inflammation, excluding it from the systemic response seen in this neck maneuver entirely and accurately here.
Choice C reason: Meningitis causes meningeal irritation; neck flexion (Brudzinski’s sign) elicits leg pain and knee bending. Neck pain aligns with inflammation, making this the likely diagnosis for the client’s response to this specific neurological test comprehensively here.
Choice D reason: Bell’s palsy affects cranial nerve VII, causing facial paralysis, not leg or neck pain. This peripheral nerve issue lacks the meningeal signs triggered by neck flexion, ruling it out as the cause in this scenario fully here.
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