The nurse is unable to get an IV line started on a client who is lethargic and unable to follow commands with a blood glucose of 30. The nurse should make what recommendation when giving SBAR report to the prescriber?
Diet cola PO
Dextrose 50% IV
Glucagon IM
Insulin glargine SQ
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Diet cola PO is not an appropriate recommendation for a client with a blood glucose of 30, because diet cola does not contain any sugar and will not raise the blood glucose level. Moreover, the client is lethargic and unable to follow commands, which means they may have difficulty swallowing and may aspirate the liquid.
Choice B reason: Dextrose 50% IV is a potential recommendation for a client with a blood glucose of 30, because it can rapidly increase the blood glucose level and reverse the symptoms of hypoglycemia. However, the nurse is unable to get an IV line started on the client, which makes this option impossible.
Choice C reason: Glucagon IM is the best recommendation for a client with a blood glucose of 30, because it can stimulate the liver to release glucose into the bloodstream and raise the blood glucose level. Glucagon can be given intramuscularly or subcutaneously, which does not require an IV access. Glucagon is usually given as an emergency treatment for severe hypoglycemia when the client is unconscious or unable to swallow.
Choice D reason: Insulin glargine SQ is not an appropriate recommendation for a client with a blood glucose of 30, because insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin that lowers the blood glucose level. Giving insulin to a client with hypoglycemia can worsen their condition and cause coma or death. ⁹
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Elimination is the process of removing a drug from the body, usually through the kidneys or the liver. Acute renal failure is a condition where the kidneys suddenly lose their ability to filter waste products and excess fluid from the blood. This can impair the elimination of drugs that are mainly excreted by the kidneys, leading to increased drug levels and potential toxicity. The nurse should monitor the patient's renal function and adjust the dose of drugs that are renally eliminated.
Choice B reason: Metabolism is the process of transforming a drug into one or more metabolites, usually by enzymes in the liver. Acute renal failure does not directly affect the metabolism of drugs, unless it causes liver damage or alters the blood flow to the liver. The nurse should monitor the patient's liver function and the levels of drugs that are metabolized by the liver.
Choice C reason: Distribution is the process of transferring a drug from the blood to the tissues and organs of the body. Acute renal failure can affect the distribution of drugs that are bound to plasma proteins, such as albumin. When the kidneys are damaged, they may leak protein into the urine, causing hypoalbuminemia (low levels of albumin in the blood). This can increase the amount of free or unbound drug in the blood, which may enhance the drug's effect or cause adverse reactions. The nurse should monitor the patient's serum albumin level and the effects of drugs that are highly protein bound.
Choice D reason: Absorption is the process of moving a drug from the site of administration to the bloodstream. Acute renal failure does not directly affect the absorption of drugs, unless it causes changes in the gastrointestinal tract, such as edema, bleeding, or motility disorders. The nurse should monitor the patient's gastrointestinal function and the bioavailability of drugs that are administered orally.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: This choice is incorrect because checking the apical heart rate before taking calcium channel blockers is not necessary for most patients. Calcium channel blockers are a group of medications that relax and widen blood vessels, lower blood pressure, and slow the heart rate. They are used to treat conditions such as hypertension, angina, and arrhythmias. The nurse should check the apical heart rate only if the patient has a history of bradycardia (slow heart rate) or heart block (a problem with the electrical conduction of the heart).
Choice B reason: This choice is incorrect because calcium channel blockers do not cause increased blood pressure, but rather lower it. Blurred vision is not a common side effect of calcium channel blockers, and it may indicate other problems, such as eye infection, glaucoma, or stroke. The nurse should instruct the patient to report any changes in vision, but not to associate them with calcium channel blockers.
Choice C reason: This choice is incorrect because calcium channel blockers do not affect cholesterol levels, and the time of day they are taken does not matter. Cholesterol is a type of fat that circulates in the blood and can build up in the arteries, causing atherosclerosis (hardening and narrowing of the arteries). Cholesterol levels are influenced by diet, exercise, genetics, and other medications, such as statins. The nurse should advise the patient to follow a healthy lifestyle and take any prescribed medications for cholesterol control.
Choice D reason: This choice is correct because grapefruit juice can interact with some calcium channel blockers, such as nifedipine, verapamil, and diltiazem, and increase their blood levels and effects. This can cause serious side effects, such as low blood pressure, dizziness, headache, flushing, and edema (swelling). The nurse should warn the patient to avoid grapefruit juice and any products that contain grapefruit while taking calcium channel blockers.
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