The nurse is working with a mother and her 4-year-old daughter just diagnosed with autism. The mother asks the nurse what the treatment is for autism. What is the best response by the nurse?
There is no cure for autism; there is a poor prognosis for the child ever living independently
The management of autism is focused on helping the child reach optimal function for them
Stimulant medications and antipsychotics are always included in the treatment
Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT) is the mainstay of treatment for autism
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Stating there is no cure for autism is accurate, but claiming a poor prognosis for independent living is overly pessimistic and incorrect. Many individuals with autism achieve varying degrees of independence with tailored interventions, making this response discouraging and not reflective of current management approaches.
Choice B reason: Autism management focuses on individualized interventions, such as behavioral therapy, speech therapy, and occupational therapy, to optimize the child’s functional abilities. This approach supports developmental progress, social skills, and independence, aligning with evidence-based practices for autism spectrum disorder, making it the best and most accurate response.
Choice C reason: Stimulant medications and antipsychotics are not always included in autism treatment. They may be used for specific symptoms (e.g., hyperactivity, aggression) but are not universal. Autism management prioritizes behavioral and developmental therapies, making this statement inaccurate and overly prescriptive for a 4-year-old’s treatment plan.
Choice D reason: Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT) is not the mainstay for autism, especially in a 4-year-old, as it requires cognitive skills not yet developed. Behavioral interventions like Applied Behavior Analysis (ABA) are more common, focusing on skill-building, making CBT an incorrect primary treatment choice for autism management.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","D"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Estrogen level testing is not routinely ordered for Trisomy 21 patients. While fertility concerns may arise in females with Down syndrome, estrogen levels are not a standard screening test. Common tests focus on congenital anomalies and developmental issues, such as cardiac, thyroid, and musculoskeletal abnormalities, making this choice inappropriate.
Choice B reason: Vision and hearing screenings are critical for Trisomy 21 patients due to a high prevalence of sensory impairments. Approximately 50% have hearing loss, often conductive, and 60-75% have vision issues like cataracts or refractive errors. Early detection ensures interventions to support development, making this a standard and necessary test.
Choice C reason: Spine radiographs are commonly ordered for Trisomy 21 patients to assess for scoliosis and atlantoaxial instability, which occur in about 10-15% of individuals. These musculoskeletal abnormalities can lead to neurological complications if undetected. Regular screening ensures timely intervention, making this a standard test for managing Down syndrome complications.
Choice D reason: Echocardiograms are essential for Trisomy 21 patients, as 40-50% have congenital heart defects, such as atrioventricular septal defects or ventricular septal defects. Early detection is critical to manage cardiac complications that can affect growth and survival, making this a routine test in Down syndrome care protocols.
Choice E reason: Thyroid hormone level testing is standard for Trisomy 21 patients due to a high risk of hypothyroidism (15-20% prevalence). Thyroid dysfunction can exacerbate developmental delays and metabolic issues. Regular screening ensures early treatment, but it was not selected as one of the three most common tests in this context.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Tenderness over McBurney’s point suggests appendicitis, not hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, which involves pyloric muscle hypertrophy causing gastric outlet obstruction. This condition presents with vomiting and a palpable mass, not right lower quadrant tenderness, making this an incorrect finding for the diagnosis.
Choice B reason: The FACES scale assesses pain, but hypertrophic pyloric stenosis typically causes discomfort from vomiting, not localized epigastric/umbilical pain rated at 6. Infants may show fussiness, not specific pain scores, making this an incorrect and non-specific finding for the suspected condition.
Choice C reason: A sausage-shaped mass is associated with intussusception, not hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. The latter causes a firm, olive-shaped mass in the upper right quadrant due to pyloric hypertrophy, making this finding incorrect for the suspected diagnosis in a 6-week-old with forceful vomiting.
Choice D reason: A firm, olive-shaped mass in the upper right quadrant is a hallmark of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, caused by thickened pyloric muscle obstructing gastric outflow. Palpable during exam, it correlates with the forceful vomiting described, making this the most likely and correct physical finding.
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