The nurse noticed an increase in the prevalence of pressure injury among clients in the intensive care unit (ICU). The nurse documented the findings and worked with the manager to develop and implement a new policy addressing the consistent use of pressure injury risk assessment scale. Which term best describes the nurse's actions?
Advocacy.
Quality improvement.
Case Management.
Collaboration.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Advocacy: Advocacy involves representing the interests and needs of individual patients or groups within the healthcare system. While the nurse's actions may indirectly benefit patients by improving care standards, the focus here is on systemic changes rather than individual patient representation. Advocacy often involves lobbying for resources, policy changes, or addressing ethical concerns on behalf of patients, which is not the primary goal of the actions taken in this scenario.
B. Quality improvement: This term best describes the nurse's actions as it focuses on enhancing healthcare practices and patient outcomes through systematic efforts. By identifying the increase in pressure injuries and collaborating with management to implement a new policy, the nurse is actively participating in a quality improvement initiative aimed at reducing risks and improving care protocols in the ICU. This approach reflects a commitment to continuous improvement in patient safety and care standards, aligning with best practices in healthcare.
C. Case Management: Case management primarily involves coordinating care for individual patients, ensuring they receive appropriate services, and managing their healthcare journey. While the nurse may address pressure injuries at the unit level, the actions taken are broader and not confined to individual patient care. Case management emphasizes individualized care plans and resource allocation rather than addressing systemic issues affecting a group of patients in the ICU.
D. Collaboration: Collaboration refers to working together with others, such as colleagues and management, to achieve common goals in patient care. While the nurse did collaborate with the manager to develop and implement the new policy, collaboration alone does not capture the proactive approach taken to address the increase in pressure injuries. It emphasizes teamwork but lacks the focus on systematic quality enhancement that characterizes quality improvement efforts, which aim to implement lasting changes in practices and outcomes.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. To facilitate weaning off the mechanical ventilator. While PEEP is an important component of mechanical ventilation, its primary function is not to facilitate weaning. Instead, it improves oxygenation by preventing alveolar collapse. Weaning involves gradually reducing ventilatory support, but PEEP is typically adjusted based on oxygenation needs rather than as a direct step in weaning.
B. To decrease trapped oxygen in the alveoli. PEEP does not decrease trapped oxygen; instead, it maintains alveolar patency and prevents atelectasis. In conditions like ARDS, alveoli tend to collapse due to fluid accumulation and inflammation, and PEEP helps counteract this collapse to improve gas exchange. Reducing "trapped" oxygen is not a function of PEEP.
C. To promote independent breathing efforts. PEEP itself does not promote spontaneous breathing; instead, it provides positive pressure at the end of exhalation to improve oxygenation. In fact, high levels of PEEP can suppress spontaneous breathing by increasing intrathoracic pressure, requiring careful adjustment to balance oxygenation and ventilatory effort.
D. To keep the airways and small lung spaces open. PEEP prevents alveolar collapse by maintaining positive pressure in the lungs at the end of expiration. This improves oxygenation and gas exchange, which is critical in ARDS, where alveoli are prone to collapse due to inflammation and fluid accumulation. Keeping alveoli open reduces shunting and improves oxygen delivery to tissues.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Client develops ecchymosis at the venipuncture site. Minor bruising at venipuncture sites is a common and expected side effect of heparin therapy due to its anticoagulant effect. While the nurse should monitor for increased bruising, isolated ecchymosis at an IV site does not necessarily indicate excessive anticoagulation or require immediate provider notification.
B. PTT 70 seconds (control 25-40). Heparin therapy is adjusted based on the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). The therapeutic range is typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value, which in this case would be approximately 60-100 seconds. A PTT of 70 seconds is within the therapeutic range, so it does not require urgent intervention.
C. Client develops hematuria. Hematuria is a sign of potential excessive anticoagulation or internal bleeding, which can be a serious complication of heparin therapy. This finding suggests that the client's coagulation status may need immediate reassessment, and the heparin infusion may require adjustment or reversal with protamine sulfate if necessary. The healthcare provider should be notified promptly.
D. Order for Coumadin 2.5 mg to begin today. It is common practice to start warfarin (Coumadin) while a client is on heparin therapy because warfarin takes several days to reach therapeutic levels. Heparin is typically continued until the INR reaches a therapeutic range. Therefore, this order does not require provider notification.
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