The nurse notices that a male client is particularly delusional one afternoon. He begins to pace the floor and appears to be losing control of himself. Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement?

Use firmness and direct the client to sit for awhile.

Suggest to the client that he take a walk.

Move the client to a quiet place on the unit.

Encourage the client to use the punching bag

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Delusions and loss of control can be distressing for the client and potentially disruptive to the unit environment. Moving the client to a quiet place helps create a calm and less stimulating environment, which can help reduce agitation and promote a sense of safety and security.

Using firmness and directing the client to sit for a while may escalate the situation and increase the client's distress. It is important to approach the client with empathy and provide a supportive environment rather than exerting control through firmness.

Suggesting the client take a walk or encouraging the client to use a punching bag may not be appropriate if the client is already displaying signs of agitation and losing control. These interventions may not address the underlying causes of the delusions and could potentially worsen the situation.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The correct answer ischoice A.

Choice A rationale:

Having the client vocalize the instructions provided ensures that they have understood the information correctly.This method allows the nurse to confirm comprehension and clarify any misunderstandings.

Choice B rationale:

Providing written instructions for eye drop administration is helpful but does not ensure that the client understands the instructions.It is a good supplementary measure but should not be the sole method of communication.

Choice C rationale:

Speaking clearly and facing the client for lip reading is important, especially for clients with hearing impairments.However, it does not guarantee that the client has understood the instructions.

Choice D rationale:

Ensuring that someone will stay with the client for 24 hours is a good safety measure but does not directly address the client’s understanding of the discharge instructions.

A. Initiate continuous dopamine infusion at 2 mcg/kg/minute. B. Administer promethazine 25 mg slow intravenous (IV) push every 4 hours. C. Begin potassium chloride 10 mEq over 1 hour per secondary infusion. D. Give a bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride 1,000 ml over 30 minutes.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A) Incorrect - Initiating continuous dopamine infusion is not a priority in this situation. The client's low blood pressure and electrolyte imbalances require more immediate attention.
B) Incorrect - Administering promethazine addresses symptoms like nausea and vomiting, but it doesn't address the primary issue of hypovolemia and low blood pressure.
C) Incorrect - Administering potassium chloride without addressing the fluid deficit can be dangerous and may lead to further electrolyte imbalances.
D) Correct- The client's vital signs and laboratory results indicate hypovolemia (low blood pressure, low sodium, and low potassium). The immediate priority is to address the fluid deficit and correct the electrolyte imbalances. Administering a bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline) will help increase intravascular volume and improve blood pressure, as well as correct the electrolyte imbalances to some extent.

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The nurse notices that a male client is particularly delusional one afternoon. He begins to pace the floor and appears to be losing control of himself. Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Explanation

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Explanation

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