The nurse reviews a client’s antepartum nonstress test results as reactive. The nurse interprets this finding as:

Two or more fetal heart rate accelerations within a 20-minute period.

No late decelerations of the fetal heart rate.

Late decelerations are present with a minimum of 50% of the contractions.

Fetal heart rate accelerations less than 15 beats per minute or lasting less than 15 seconds.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale

A reactive nonstress test is defined as having two or more fetal heart rate accelerations of at least 15 beats per minute lasting 15 seconds or more within a 20-minute period.

Choice B rationale

No late decelerations of the fetal heart rate do not define a reactive nonstress test, which focuses on fetal heart rate accelerations as indicators of fetal well-being.

Choice C rationale

The presence of late decelerations in more than 50% of contractions indicates uteroplacental insufficiency and fetal distress, not a reactive nonstress test which requires accelerations.

Choice D rationale

Fetal heart rate accelerations less than 15 beats per minute or lasting less than 15 seconds do not meet the criteria for a reactive nonstress test, which requires accelerations of 15 beats per minute lasting 15 seconds or more.

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Correct Answer is A,B,C,D

Explanation

The correct sequence of maternal changes from first to last is:

Amenorrhea (A) – This is usually the first sign of pregnancy, occurring due to increased progesterone levels and the absence of a menstrual period.
Goodell’s sign (B) – This refers to the softening of the cervix, which typically occurs around 6-8 weeks of pregnancy due to increased vascularization.
Quickening (C) – This is the first perception of fetal movement by the mother, usually felt between 16-20 weeks of pregnancy.
Lightening (D) – This occurs late in pregnancy (around 37-40 weeks) when the fetus descends into the pelvis in preparation for birth.

So, the correct order is:
A → B → C → D.

A. Calculate the estimated date of birth. B. Obtain the client’s personal and family medical history. C. Obtain information about prior pregnancies. D. Check the client’s urine with a reagent strip. E. Schedule the client for prenatal laboratory testing. F. Discuss chorionic villus sampling with the client.

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D","E"]

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Calculating the estimated date of birth involves determining the gestational age. Gestational age is crucial for monitoring fetal development and timing prenatal care.

Choice B rationale

Obtaining the client’s personal and family medical history helps identify genetic risks, potential complications, and health conditions that may affect pregnancy and delivery.

Choice C rationale

Obtaining information about prior pregnancies provides insight into potential risks and outcomes. Previous pregnancy complications can indicate risks for the current pregnancy.

Choice D rationale

Checking the client’s urine with a reagent strip screens for urinary tract infections, protein, and glucose levels. UTIs can cause complications, while protein and glucose levels help monitor maternal health.

Choice E rationale

Scheduling the client for prenatal laboratory testing, such as blood work and ultrasounds, helps assess maternal and fetal health. Tests like blood type, Rh factor, and infectious diseases are essential for prenatal care.

Choice F rationale

Discussing chorionic villus sampling is not necessary at 18 weeks of gestation. CVS is typically performed between 10-13 weeks for early genetic testing.

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The nurse reviews a client’s antepartum nonstress test results as reactive. The nurse interprets this finding as:

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is planning on becoming pregnant about the changes she should expect. Identify the sequence of maternal changes. Order from the first in appearance to last.

Correct Answer is A,B,C,D

Explanation

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Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D","E"]

Explanation

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