The nurse reviews a client’s antepartum nonstress test results as reactive. The nurse interprets this finding as:

Two or more fetal heart rate accelerations within a 20-minute period.

No late decelerations of the fetal heart rate.

Late decelerations are present with a minimum of 50% of the contractions.

Fetal heart rate accelerations less than 15 beats per minute or lasting less than 15 seconds.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale

A reactive nonstress test is defined as having two or more fetal heart rate accelerations of at least 15 beats per minute lasting 15 seconds or more within a 20-minute period.

Choice B rationale

No late decelerations of the fetal heart rate do not define a reactive nonstress test, which focuses on fetal heart rate accelerations as indicators of fetal well-being.

Choice C rationale

The presence of late decelerations in more than 50% of contractions indicates uteroplacental insufficiency and fetal distress, not a reactive nonstress test which requires accelerations.

Choice D rationale

Fetal heart rate accelerations less than 15 beats per minute or lasting less than 15 seconds do not meet the criteria for a reactive nonstress test, which requires accelerations of 15 beats per minute lasting 15 seconds or more.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale

The type of contraceptive used is not directly relevant for a hysterosalpingogram test. The test focuses on the structure and patency of the uterine cavity and fallopian tubes, not contraceptive history.

Choice B rationale

While the number of past pregnancies might be clinically relevant, it does not directly impact the hysterosalpingogram procedure. This test is typically used to evaluate tubal patency and uterine abnormalities regardless of pregnancy history.

Choice C rationale

The patient's age of menarche is not pertinent to a hysterosalpingogram test. Menarche age relates more to puberty and menstrual cycle history, which are not focal points of this imaging procedure.

Choice D rationale

Iodine allergy is crucial to identify before a hysterosalpingogram, as the procedure often involves the use of an iodine-based contrast dye. Identifying allergies helps prevent potential allergic reactions to the dye.

A. "If your HIV testing comes back positive, your baby will be infected." B. "You may notice dark urine and a metallic taste caused by ceftriaxone." C. "After you take the azithromycin, do not consume any calcium-rich foods." D. "Let's discuss some options for notifying your sexual partners."

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice B rationale: Ceftriaxone does not commonly cause dark urine or a metallic taste. These side effects are typically associated with other antibiotics, like metronidazole. The nurse should provide accurate information about medication side effects to maintain client trust.

Choice C rationale: Azithromycin absorption is not significantly affected by calcium intake. Unlike tetracyclines, which bind with calcium and reduce efficacy, azithromycin’s pharmacokinetics remain stable, ensuring the medication effectively treats the infection.

Choice D rationale: Discussing options for notifying sexual partners is essential for preventing the spread of sexually transmitted infections. It ensures that partners can seek testing and treatment, reducing the risk of re-infection and promoting overall community health.

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The nurse reviews a client’s antepartum nonstress test results as reactive. The nurse interprets this finding as:

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is scheduling a hysterosalpingogram test for a patient. When planning the test, which of the following information from the patient’s history will be needed?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Scenario: A nurse is caring for a 27-year-old female client in the clinic who is presumptively pregnant. Exhibits The nurse is teaching the client about the treatment plan. Which statement by the nurse would be appropriate?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse in a prenatal clinic is completing a skin assessment of a client who is in the second trimester. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is scheduled for an alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) test. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

At the initial prenatal visit, and often the subsequent visits, the health care provider will obtain a clean catch urine specimen to look for all of the following, except:

A 28-year-old female presents to the obstetrics office, suspecting she may be pregnant. Which of the following would the nurse recognize as a presumptive sign of pregnancy?

Oral contraceptive pills are of different types. Which type is most appropriate for mothers who are breastfeeding?

A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who is pregnant and asks the nurse for her estimated date of birth (EDB). The client’s last menstrual period began on July 27. What is the client’s EDB? (State the date in MMDD. For example, July 27 is 0727) .

The clinic nurse is measuring the uterine fundal height of a client at 36 weeks gestation lying in a supine position. The client suddenly reports dizziness, and the nurse observes pallor and damp, cool skin. What should the nurse do first?