The nurse understands that when a practitioner corrects subluxation by manipulating the vertebrae of the spinal column, the practitioner is employing which therapy?

Massage therapy

Allopathic therapy

Therapeutic Touch therapy

Chiropractic therapy

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

D. Chiropractic therapy involves the manual manipulation of the spine to correct vertebral subluxations, which are misalignments or partial dislocations of the vertebrae. Chiropractors use specific techniques to adjust the spine, aiming to restore proper alignment, reduce nerve interference, and improve overall function.

A. Massage therapy can be beneficial for certain musculoskeletal issues and overall wellness but it typically does not involve the manipulation of vertebrae to correct subluxation.
B. Allopathic therapy refers to conventional Western medicine, which includes treatments such as pharmaceutical drugs, surgery, and other interventions aimed at treating diseases or symptoms. Allopathic medicine does not typically involve spinal manipulation for correcting subluxation.
C. Therapeutic Touch is a holistic therapy that involves the practitioner using their hands near the patient's body to detect and manipulate the body's energy field with the goal of promoting healing and relaxation. However, it does not involve direct manipulation of the vertebrae to correct subluxation.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

C. Administering naloxone is often the priority action for a client exhibiting symptoms of opiate intoxication, especially if they are experiencing significant respiratory depression or unconsciousness. Naloxone is a medication used to rapidly reverse the effects of opioids, including respiratory depression and sedation.
A. Opening the crash cart is not the priority action for a client exhibiting symptoms of opiate intoxication unless the client's condition deteriorates rapidly, leading to a life-threatening emergency such as respiratory depression or cardiac arrest.
B. This intervention is important for clients experiencing respiratory depression, hypoxemia, or altered mental status due to opiate overdose. However, it may not be the highest priority action if the client's respiratory status is stable
D. Contacting the client's parents or guardians is important for obtaining medical history, consent for treatment (if applicable), and support. However, it may not be the highest priority action in the immediate management of opiate intoxication.

A. Request a psychiatric evaluation for the client B. Interview the client alone and assess for abuse C. Provide the daughter and client with nutritional counseling D. Take the history from the daughter because of the client's confusion

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

B. Given the client's confusion and the daughter's behavior of constantly interrupting and not allowing the client to answer, there may be concerns about elder abuse or neglect. It's essential to create a safe and private environment for the client to speak freely without interference.
A. The client's confusion and reluctance to speak may raise concerns about their mental status. However, requesting a psychiatric evaluation is not the priority in this scenario. The client's immediate needs, including hydration, nutrition, and safety, should be addressed first.
C. Addressing malnutrition is important but providing nutritional counseling is not the priority in this scenario. The client's severe dehydration and potential abuse or neglect take precedence over nutritional concerns.
D. Obtaining information from the daughter may be helpful but it should not be the sole source of information, especially if there are concerns about the daughter's behavior and potential interference with the client's ability to communicate.

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The nurse understands that when a practitioner corrects subluxation by manipulating the vertebrae of the spinal column, the practitioner is employing which therapy?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse in the Emergency Department (ED) assesses a 17-year-old client exhibiting symptoms of opiate intoxication. Which of the following should be the nurse's priority action?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

When assessing the client diagnosed with schizotypal personality disorder, the nurse expects to identify which characteristic behavior?

The nurse working with a teen, who has a history of being moody and withdrawn, will make the establishment of a therapeutic alliance a priority because:

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